Sorry to ask such a blunt question, but I'm running out of time and I just can't figure this seemingly simple thing out. It's the p-value for $B_0$, a single variable regression. $H_0: B_0=0$ and $H_1: B0 \neq 0$. $T_{calc} = (0.5681 - 0)/0.9284 = 0.6119$. Then it says $p\text{-value}=2 \cdot (t\ge 0,6119) =2 \cdot 0.281525$. Where is this $0.281525$ coming from? I know it has something to do with the table. $n=8$.

Sorry again, I have a test coming up, for some reason I can't figure this out. I spent way too much time on this now, watching youtube videos for the past 1.5 hours trying to figure out where this .2815... came from.

-
The exact format of t-tables varies a bit from one table to another. Can you print what the n = 8 row looks like? These days, these things are usually figured out by computer, without tables. –  Peter Flom Jun 9 '14 at 10:52
1.44 1.94 2.45 3.14 3.71 sorry no that was for 6, because I was assuming n-k-1 degrees of freedom. for 8 it is: 1.4 1.86 2.31 2.9 3.36 –  themindseye Jun 9 '14 at 10:59
If that is it, then they didn't use that table. –  Peter Flom Jun 9 '14 at 11:20

That depends on how your tables are organized, but the typical one-page tables probably don't show upper tail areas bigger than about 0.25. So, for example see the 6df row of this table. The smallest value there is 0.718, which has an area of 0.25 to the right of it. Your t-value is smaller, so the upper tail area is bigger than 0.25, and so the p-value is more than $2\times 0.25$; you'd write $p>0.5$ in that case. –  Glen_b Jun 9 '14 at 11:23