# Zelig reports $R^2$ of a negative binomial regression - nonsense?

Using Zelig in R I fitted a negative binomial model to my data. The psychology APA standard demands to report the overall R squared, F-Value and p-value for the whole model.

I looked at the formula for R square and it is using sum of squares. Since the negative binomial model is not using least square method assuming a linear model, does it make sense here to report any R squared?

If not, could I argue in my paper that reporting R square is non-sense or not possible?

If yes, how can I calculate an equivalent R Squared, and how can I perform the F-Test to report the demanded numbers?

thanks

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 I think you 'rage' is justified, but you can't do much. If the only 'hammer' you have is a Gaussian distribution, then you have to fall to F-test, R-Sq, etc. It is definitely not non-sense to report $R^2$ if the CLT is satisfied, which may not be true in your case. It is good that you question such issues, instead of just using them. – suncoolsu Sep 5 '11 at 0:03