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This is a self-study question. The name of the book is called: Applied Statistics and Probability for Engineers by Montgomery and Runger. This problem is on page 73. It's exercise 3-41.

The entire problem is listed as the following:

Given the following cumulative distribution function: $$ F(x)=\left\{\begin{matrix} 0 & & x<-10 \\ 0.25 & & -10\leq x< 30 \\ 0.75 & &30\leq x< 50 \\ 1 & & 50 \leq x \end{matrix}\right. $$ Determine each of the probabilities: a) $P(X<50)$ b) $P(0 \leq X < 10)$ c) $P(-10 < X <10) $... etc etc. The question I have is this:

Why does the following probability mass function evaluate to 0? $$ P(0 \leq X < 10) = 0 $$

Isn't this set of outcomes a subset of $-10\leq x< 30$ and therefore should be evaluated to 0.25?

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  • $\begingroup$ Where are you getting this from? Is this an example problem from a text or course? Can you provide some context? $\endgroup$ Dec 19, 2014 at 23:36
  • $\begingroup$ Yes this is an example problem from a text book. The lesson is on deriving cdfs from pmfs and converting pmts to cdfs. There isn't any context beyond what I listed. $\endgroup$
    – J.W.
    Dec 19, 2014 at 23:39
  • $\begingroup$ It would help to get the name of the book, page number, etc., you can copy & paste the full question & the surrounding descriptive text, etc. Also, please add the [self-study] tag & read its wiki. $\endgroup$ Dec 19, 2014 at 23:42
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    $\begingroup$ Ok! I added all the context I'm able to provide. $\endgroup$
    – J.W.
    Dec 19, 2014 at 23:46
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    $\begingroup$ For goodness sake, just draw $F$ (why aren't you always doing this?). Mark the two bounds on the open interval on your plot. How much does $F$ change inside that interval? I'd think this is an absolute minimum requirement for a reasonable attempt at the question. [On the other hand, if you have done at least that much, given the requirements on self-study questions, you should show your attempt.] $\endgroup$
    – Glen_b
    Dec 20, 2014 at 1:12

2 Answers 2

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The cumulative probability distribution function $F_X(x)$ tells us how much probability mass there is to the left of $x$ or at $x$ for each $x$ on the real line. (The choice of notation, though almost universally used is truly dreadful for use in a classroom setting! How on earth does one read out aloud $F_X(x)$ or $P\{X\leq x\}$? F-sub-big X of little x? probability that random variable $X$ is no larger than lower-case x?) Formally, the value of $F_X(x)$ is just $P\{X \leq x\}$. As Glen_b's comment says, you really should start by sketching the function $F_X(x)$ at the very least.

When $X$ is a discrete random variable taking on values $x_1, x_2, \ldots$ with probabilities $p_1, p_2, \ldots $ respectively, a little thought (instead of rote memorization of the definition) reveals that $F_X(x)$ must be what can be described as a staircase function, increasing from $0$ to $1$ as $x$ increases, with steps of heights $p_1, p_2, \ldots$ at points $x_1, x_2, \ldots$ etc. The function is discontinuous at each $x_i$, and is constant in each interval $[x_i, x_{i+1})$ (please be sure to note the $[$ and $)$ in the description of the intervals). Note that $F_X(x_i)$ includes $p_i$ so that the value of $F_X(x)$ at the point $x=x_i$ (where the function is discontinuous) is the value on the right. Since you are studying from a text intended for engineers, you might find this written as $F_X(x) = F_X(x^+)$. Thus, $$F_X(x) = P\{X \leq x\} = F_X(x^+) ~ \text{and} ~ P\{X < x\} = F_X(x^-).$$

In fact, for any random variable (not necessarily a discrete random variable or an integer-valued random variable as in Rusan's answer) and for any real numbers $a$ and $b$ such that $a \leq b$, $$\begin{align} P\{a < X \leq b\} &= F_X(b^+) - F_X(a^+) = F_X(b)-F_X(a),\tag{1}\\ P\{a \leq X \leq b\} &= F_X(b^+) - F_X(a^-) = F_X(b) - F_X(a^-),\tag{2}\\ P\{a \leq X < b\} &= F_X(b^-) - F_X(a^-) = F_X(b^-) - F_X(a^-),\tag{3}\\ P\{a < X < b\} &= F_X(b^-) - F_X(a^+) = F_X(b^-)-F_X(a).\tag{4} \end{align}$$

For the special case when $b = a$, $(2)$ above becomes $$P\{X=a\} = F_X(a^+)-F_X(a^-),$$ that is, $P\{X=a\}$ is the jump (if any) in the value of $F_X(x)$ at $x=a$. If $F_X(x)$ is continuous at $x=a$, then $P\{X=a\}=0$.

With this as prologue, note that your given $F_X(x)$ is a staircase function with jumps of $\frac 14, \frac 12, \frac 14$ at $x=-10, 30, 50$ respectively; that is, $X$ takes on values $-10, 30, 50$ with probabilities $\frac 14, \frac 12, \frac 14$ respectively, and once you have that, the answers to the questions asked are easy to compute directly, or, if you prefer to read the $F_X(0^-)$ etc off the graph that you have drawn as you apply $(1)$-$(4)$, that is fine too.

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Since this question relates specifically to a discrete random variable (as your book says...), I will answer it as such. Dilip Sarwate's answer provides the general result for a discrete random variable.

With those health warnings, the cumulative distribution function (CDF), $F$, between $x=-10$ and $x=30$ does not vary. This implies the probability mass strictly between these points is $0$. In particular, the interval $0\leq x <10$ lies strictly within the interval $-10\leq x <30$ so $\mathbb{P}(0\leq X<10)=0$.

To see why this is, assume that the CFD does change at some $x$. Because $F$ is a non-decreasing function, and $X$ is a discrete random variable, we can find a sufficiently small $\epsilon>0$ so that $$F(x-\epsilon)<F(x)$$ holds, and so can be rearranged as $$0<F(x)-F(x-\epsilon)=\mathbb{P}(X\leq x)-\mathbb{P}(X\leq x-\epsilon).$$ Because we are free to choose $\epsilon$ as small as we like, subject to $0<\epsilon$, we rewrite the inequality as $$0<\mathbb{P}(X\leq x)-\mathbb{P}(X<x)=f(x)=\mathbb{P}(X=x).$$ So the points for which the CDF changes (steps) are those that have positive probability mass. By reversing the argument, you can see the converse is also true.

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  • $\begingroup$ Thanks Rusan. Can you explain this step or provide a better definition that led you to this inference?: "This implies the probability mass between these points is 0." Yes, this book is quite sparse on clear explanations. $\endgroup$
    – J.W.
    Dec 20, 2014 at 2:38
  • $\begingroup$ @J.W. I have added more detail. $\endgroup$
    – Rusan Kax
    Dec 20, 2014 at 12:35
  • $\begingroup$ The expression $$\mathbb{P}(a\leq X \leq b)=\mathbb{P}(X\leq b)-\mathbb{P}(X<a)=F(b)-F(a-1)$$ is applicable only for discrete integer-valued random variables. $\endgroup$ Dec 20, 2014 at 14:18
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    $\begingroup$ (1) Out of curiosity, what specifically do you think is "quite poor" about this notation? (2) Referring to random variables that are "integer valued" is a little misleading (and leads to some incorrect expressions in the answer). How would your analysis change if (say) "$30$" in the question were changed to $10\pi$? $\endgroup$
    – whuber
    Dec 20, 2014 at 19:33
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    $\begingroup$ I don't think that the answer can be deleted since it has been upvoted and accepted, but I do hope that you will edit your answer to remove most of the unnecessary baggage. For example, there is no need to compute $f(9) = 0$ etc. The convention for probability mass functions is that the value of the mass function is specified only at the points where there actually is probability mass, and the value of the function is understood to be $0$ everywhere else. $\endgroup$ Dec 21, 2014 at 3:28

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