This problem could be complex but it has a simple solution.
Let me start by explaining why the mean and SD of the estimated slopes are not relevant for testing whether all the true slopes are zero. Consider several illustrative hypothetical alternatives:
The true slopes are all zero, so that any nonzero estimates are the result of chance variation in the errors.
The true slopes all differ from zero, their estimation errors are small enough to show that every estimated slope significantly differs from zero, but the average slope is close to zero.
Some of the true slopes are zero but at least one is not, and for that one the estimated slope is significantly different from zero.
Note, in passing, that changing the units of measurement of the dependent variable will simultaneously change all estimated slopes and the SD of those slopes by the same amount, so that only the ratio mean(slope):SD(slope) is meaningful. In this case that ratio is approximately 1:10. Although this indicates there is a wide variation in estimated slopes, it cannot distinguish among any of these alternatives. That is why these two statistics are useless.
One problem is that these regressions are not necessarily related. They could involve different values of the independent variables. More importantly, the variation of the dependent variables could differ. Imagine (again hypothetically) a series of experiments in which a crude (but fast and cheap) measurement is made of the dependent variable, and then later is followed up by other experiments in which the measurement is made in a more precise way. We couldn't just dump the combined data into one regression model, due to the possibly large differences in distributions of the errors.
Another problem is that the residuals might not have Normal distributions. When each regression includes enough data (typically 30 points is "enough," but as always it depends), the sampling distribution of the estimated slope is still approximately normal, so the t-testing apparatus applies. With small amounts of data, or when some data have high leverage, the t-tests are suspect. However, that's a common problem having many cures, including using generalized linear models, re-expressing (transforming) the independent variables and/or the dependent variable, and other more specialized approaches. So let's assume that the regressions have been appropriately done. This means that we can trust the p-values for the slope tests.
Now we're off and running. The p-value for a single regression, under the null hypothesis that the slope is zero, will have a uniform distribution. Therefore the p-values obtained from each regression should behave like a set of independent draws from a uniform distribution. Small p-values suggest significant differences, so we are interested in whether there are more small p-values than would be expected by chance. (We should also be interested in whether the set of p-values really does look uniform: significant deviations from uniformity would suggest problems with the regressions or subtle violations of the null hypothesis.) A useful statistic, then, is the minimum p-value.
The axioms of probability immediately imply the minimum $p$ of $n$ independent draws from a uniform distribution has a CDF of $\Pr{[p \le t]} = 1-\Pr{[p \gt t]} = 1-(1-t)^n$. To test the null hypothesis that all slopes are zero at the $\alpha$ level (say $\alpha=0.05$, corresponding to $1-0.05 = 95\%$ confidence), we therefore follow this simple procedure:
(a) Let $p_0$ be the smallest p-value of all the $n$ regressions.
(b) Compare $1-(1-p_0)^n$ to $\alpha$. If it is smaller, conclude that at least one slope is nonzero. If it is not smaller, do not reject the hypothesis that all slopes are zero.
Note that this is algebraically the same as checking whether $p_0$ is smaller than $1-(1-\alpha)^{1/n}$. For small $\alpha$ this is close to $\alpha/n$. (The relative error made by this Bonferroni approximation is always less than $-\log(1-\alpha)/\alpha$, which is about $1+\alpha/2$. For $\alpha=0.05$ that's a relative error of about $1.025$, which for most purposes is negligible.) These considerations lead to a simple procedure indeed:
Reject the hypothesis that all slopes are zero only when the smallest p-value of the regressions is less than $\alpha/n$.