This questions might sound stupid, but... is it correct that random effects could apply only to categorical variables (like individual id, population id, ...), e.g. say $x_i$ is categorical variable:
$y_i$ ~ $\beta_{x_i}$
$\beta_{x_i}$ ~ $Norm(\mu, \delta^2)$
but from the principle the random effect cannot apply to continuous variable (like height, mass...), say $z_i$:
$y_i$ ~ $\alpha + \beta \cdot z_{i}$
because then there is only one coefficient $\beta$ which cannot be constrained? Sounds logical but I wonder why it is never mentioned in statistical literature! Thanks!
EDIT: But what if I constrain $z_i$ like $z_i$ ~ $Norm(\mu, \delta^2)$? Is it then random effect? But this is different from the constrain I put on $\beta_{x_i}$ - here I constrain the variable whereas in the previous example I constrained the coefficient! It starts to look as a big mess to me... Anyway, it doesn't make much sense to put this constraint, because $z_i$ are known values, so maybe this idea is completely odd :-)