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How would you explain to an only moderately statistically literate scientific reviewer that adjustment for multiple comparisons is not necessary when sampling from a Bayesian posterior?

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I would follow Gelman's example:

http://andrewgelman.com/2008/03/why_i_dont_usua_1/

http://www.stat.columbia.edu/~gelman/research/unpublished/multiple2.pdf

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Or Ken Rothman for that matter: journals.lww.com/epidem/Abstract/1990/01000/… – EpiGrad Oct 17 '11 at 20:15
@EpiGrad, Ken Rothman's argument in that paper is quite different than Andrew Gelman's perspective that Patrick cites. It would be worthwhile to elaborate, and also to clarify how it relates to Bayesian statistics (if it does at all). To Patrick it would be worthwhile to expand on this post as well. – Andy W Oct 17 '11 at 20:52
@AndyW True, they are quite different. I may try and spin it up into a full comment after lunch. – EpiGrad Oct 17 '11 at 20:54
I think Gelman doesn't make adjustment in multilevel models. But if you're using a simple regression, then adjustments may be necessary... – Manoel Galdino Oct 18 '11 at 4:07

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