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I know that the pdf of a power law distribution is $$ p(x) = \frac{\alpha-1}{x_{\text{min}}} \left(\frac{x}{x_{\text{min}}} \right)^{-\alpha}$$

But what does it intuitively mean if, for example, stock prices follow a power law distribution? Does this mean that losses can be very high but infrequent?

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This is an heavy tailed distribution, since the cdf is $$ F(x) = 1 - \left( \dfrac{x}{x_\min} \right)^{1-\alpha} $$ So the probability to exceed $x$, $(x/x_\min)^{1-\alpha}$ can be made arbitrarily close to $1$ by the proper choice of $\alpha$. For instance, if one wants the probability to exceed $10^u x_\min$ to be at least $0.9$, one should pick $\alpha$ to be at most $$ 1-\log_{10}(0.9)/u $$ a curve represented below, with the first axis being scaled by $u$, not by $10^u x_\min$... R curve rendering of the above function

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It's not a peer-reviewed source, but I like this note by CMU stats professor Cosma Shalizi. He's also an author on this article, about estimating such things from data.

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That is why I asked my question. I read that article already. Without equations, what does it mean for something to follow a power law distribution? – Thomas James Feb 4 '12 at 17:16
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Welcome to the site, Thomas! You might consider editing your question to give some indication of what piqued your interest initially. Generally, the more information, the better. For example, stating that you'd read Prof. Shalizi's note and it made you wonder about X not only preempts answers that would suggest precisely that, but also shows more clearly your train of thought, which tends to elicit better answers. :) (For example, have you read M. Mitzenmacher's review article in Internet Mathematics?) – cardinal Feb 4 '12 at 17:32

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