What is the difference between fixed effects model and random effects model for a meta-analysis of sample correlations ?
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In a fixed-effects model, you are assuming that the true correlation estimated in each study is the same. In the Random effects model you accept that there is variation in the true correlation being estimate in each study. Thus, the fixed-effects model assumes that observed variation in estimated correlations is due only to effect of random sampling. It deciding between the two, you would often use a combination of theoretical knowledge and observed data. Theory will often suggest that the true correlation should vary somewhat between studies. You can also examine various test statistics on the observed correlations to assess whether the variation appears more than you would expect based on random sampling (e.g., see this discussion about Cochran's Q and related indices). |
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Fixed-effects model assumes that there is only one single effect that will be generated for a particular population ie there is a point-estimate and thus probably, satisfies the central limit theorm. The random effects model presumes that a number of effect-sizes can be generated (pobably have been generated) for a population and we have got just one of them for a meta-analysis. This is what I can infer from Hedges and Olkin (1985)saying that there is a super-population from which effect-sizes have been generated. For example, we have got one effect-size (study) from a particular population and other studies may not be traceable.It appears that we can estimate an interval and not the point estimate. |
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