With continuous data, a linear regression $Y=\beta_1+\beta_2X_2+u$ assumes that the error term is distributed N(0,$\sigma^2$)
1) Do we assume that Var(Y|x) is likewise ~N(0,$\sigma^2$)?
2) What is this error distribution in logistic regression? When the data is in the form of 1 record per case, where the "Y" is 1 or 0, is the error term distributed Bernoulli (i.e. variance is p(1-p) )) and when the data is in the form #successes out of #of trials, is it assumed binimial (i.e. variance is np(1-p)), where p is the probability that Y is 1?