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What's the difference between terms 'link function' and 'canonical link function'? Also, are there any (theoretical) advantages of using one over the other?

e.g. A binary response variable can be modeled using many link functions such as 'logit', 'probit' etc. But, 'logit' here is considered the 'canonical' link.

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I discuss link functions extensively here: Difference between logit and probit models, focusing on regression for a binary response variable. Although only a little of that discussion focuses on the meaning of a link function's being 'canonical', it may nonetheless be helpful to read. Note that to understand the distinction b/t & advantages of a canonical vs non-canonical link function requires going fairly deep into the math underlying the GLiM. – gung Oct 21 '12 at 14:37
I had already read your answer before posting this question.. Thanks :) – steadyfish Oct 21 '12 at 20:03

2 Answers

up vote 8 down vote accepted

The above answers are more intuitive, so I try more rigor.

What is a GLM?

Let $Y=(y,\mathbf{x})$ denote a set of a response $y$ and $p$-dimensional covariate vector $\mathbf{x}=(x_1,\dots,x_p)$ with expected value $E(y)=\mu$. For $i=1,\dots,n$ independent observations, the distribution of each $y_i$ is an exponential family with density $$ f(y_i;\theta_i,\phi)=\exp\{[y_i\theta_i-\gamma(\theta_i)]/\phi+\tau(y_i,\phi)\} $$ Here, the parameter of interest (natural or canonical parameter) is $\theta_i$, $\phi$ is a scale parameter (known or seen as a nuisance) and $\gamma$ and $\tau$ are known functions. The $n$-dimensional vectors of fixed input values for the $p$ explanatory variables are denoted by $\mathbf{x}_1,\dots,\mathbf{x}_p$. We assume that the input vectors influence (1) only via a linear function, the linear predictor, $$ \eta_i=\beta_0+\beta_1x_{i1}+\dots+\beta_px_{ip} $$ upon which $\theta_i$ depends. As it can be shown that $\theta=(\gamma')^{-1}(\mu)$, this dependency is established by connecting the linear predictor $\eta$ and $\theta$ via the mean. More specifically, the mean $\mu$ is seen as an invertible and smooth function of the linear predictor, i.e. $$ g(\mu)=\eta\ \textrm{or}\ \mu=g^{-1}(\eta) $$ Now to answer your question:

The function $g(\cdot)$ is called the link function. If the function connects $\mu$ and $\theta$ such that $\mu \equiv\theta$, then this link is called canonical and has the form $g=(\gamma')^{-1}$.

That's it. Then there are a number of desirable statistical properties of using the canonical link, e.g., the sufficient statistic is $X'y$ with components $\sum_i x_{ij} y_i$ for $j = 1, \dots, p$, the Newton Method and Fisher scoring for finding the ML estimator coincide, these links simplify the derivation of the MLE, they ensure that some properties of linear regression (e.g., the sum of the residuals is 0) hold up or they ensure that $\mu$ stays within the range of the outcome variable.

Hence they tend to be used by default. Note however, that there is no a priori reason why the effects in the model should be additive on the scale given by this or any other link.

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+1, this is a really nice answer, @Momo. I did find some of the equations harder to read when they were buried in the paragraphs, so I 'blocked' them out by using double dollar-signs (ie \$$). I hope that's OK (if not, you can rollback, w/ my apologies). – gung Oct 21 '12 at 15:13
No, thanks, your edits are great! – Momo Oct 21 '12 at 15:15

gung's quoted a good explanation: the canonical link possesses special theoretical properties of minimal sufficiency. This means that you can define a conditional logit model (which economists call a fixed effect model) by conditioning on the number of outcomes, but you cannot define a conditional probit model, because there is no sufficient statistics to use with the probit link.

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