Here's a real basic question. I'm trying to teach myself a bit of stats with Verzani's Using R for Introductory Statistics.
In question 5.13 he asks: A sample of 100 people is drawn from a population of 600,000. If it is known that 40% of the population has a specific attribute, what is the probability that 35 or fewer in the sample have that attribute.
Now, I guess you're supposed to reason that the population is sufficiently large that assuming independent Bernoulli trials is close enough. Then, you get your answer like this:
> pbinom(35,100,0.4)  0.1794694
My question is this. How would you go about answering a question like that without assuming independence, say if the population was smaller.
I'm sure it'll become obvious after I read more. Just trying to make sure I'm not missing something. Sorry for the intro level question.