Timeline for Variance and asymmetry on relative frequency class distribution
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
8 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Sep 22, 2014 at 15:14 | comment | added | Macond | No, it won't change anything. You could multiply each rf with 100 and use absolute frequencies, then divide by n when necessary, it would lead to same results. You could also easily transform classical formula for mean and variance which use abs. frequencies to those you used in this case, just by simple algebra. | |
| Sep 22, 2014 at 15:11 | comment | added | MultiformeIngegno | I mean, still providing relative frequencies but specifying the total n of people. | |
| Sep 22, 2014 at 15:07 | history | edited | Macond | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
added 1035 characters in body
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| Sep 22, 2014 at 15:00 | comment | added | MultiformeIngegno | Last question: Would it change something if the text says: This is the frequency distribution of 100 families"? (same distribution) | |
| Sep 22, 2014 at 14:31 | comment | added | Macond | There is a relatively simple proof, I'm adding it to my answer. | |
| Sep 22, 2014 at 14:23 | comment | added | MultiformeIngegno | Thanks. :) How are the 2 formulas for the variance equivalent? What's the relation between them? | |
| Sep 22, 2014 at 14:22 | vote | accept | MultiformeIngegno | ||
| Sep 22, 2014 at 14:20 | history | answered | Macond | CC BY-SA 3.0 |