Timeline for Is it possible for a predictor to have low correlation but low rmse as well
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
5 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Sep 29, 2014 at 2:33 | answer | added | Memming | timeline score: 0 | |
| Sep 28, 2014 at 20:10 | answer | added | Russ Lenth | timeline score: 2 | |
| Sep 28, 2014 at 17:28 | comment | added | user12331 | @rvl. It is the same dependent variable. The dataset is same. The samples are different because ofmissing data. So I take only those data points where the predictor and targets both are available | |
| Sep 28, 2014 at 16:31 | comment | added | Russ Lenth | Is it the same dependent variable for each? The same dataset? If not, the answer is "anything can happen." If so, why are the sample sizes different? E.g., missing data? | |
| Sep 28, 2014 at 16:11 | history | asked | user12331 | CC BY-SA 3.0 |