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Aug 14, 2021 at 13:49 comment added ttnphns This is a great answer +1. Just to in form a reader that similar pictures can be found in stats.stackexchange.com/a/124892/3277
Apr 12, 2021 at 3:38 comment added Silverfish @anonuser01 You'd get the same effect if you include an independent variable whose value for each observation is 2, or $\pi$. Either way, the vector $\mathbf{1}_n$ lies in the column space of the design matrix. Note that if you did then include an intercept term as well, you get perfect multicollinearity since there's a linear dependence between the intercept column and variable-that-just-so-happens-to-be-constant column of the design matrix.
Jul 10, 2020 at 22:45 comment added 24n8 So, I have a question. Here, you stated explicitly that $\boldsymbol{1}_n$ is due to the intercept term. But what if, say, we remove the intercept, and by some coincidence, we have such that all samples's p-th feature is 1. In that case, you would have the $\boldsymbol{1}_n$ in the column space. It seems this analysis would still hold even thought here is no intercept term?
Apr 13, 2017 at 12:44 history edited CommunityBot
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Apr 6, 2016 at 20:13 comment added ttnphns +1. Note that the figure of your answer, with "column space X", Y, Ypred as vectors etc. is what is known in multivariate statistics as "(reduced) subject space representation" (see, with further links where I've used it).
Dec 25, 2014 at 15:13 comment added amoeba +1 Very nice write-up and figure. I am surprised that it only has my single lonely upvote.
Dec 25, 2014 at 1:39 history edited Silverfish CC BY-SA 3.0
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Dec 23, 2014 at 14:06 history answered Silverfish CC BY-SA 3.0