Where the notation becomes inconsistent is when there are two variables, $X$ and $Y$, and a simple linear regression is performed. This means identifying one variable, $Y$, as the response variable, and the other, $X$, as the predictor variable, and fitting the model $\hat Y = \hat \beta_0 + \hat \beta_1 X$. Some people also use the symbol $r$ to indicate the correlation between $Y$ and $\hat Y$ while others (for consistency with multiple regression) write $R$. Note that the correlation between observed and fitted responses is necessarily greater than or equal to zero, provided the model included an intercept term.* This is one reason I don't like the use of the symbol $r$ in this case: the correlation between $X$ and $Y$ might be negative, while the correlation between $Y$ and $\hat Y$ is positive (in fact it will simply be the modulus of the correlation between $X$ and $Y$) yet both might be written with the symbol $r$. I've seen some textbooks, and Wikipedia articles, switch almost interchangeably between the two meanings of $r$ and found it unnecessarily confusing. I prefer to use the symbol $R$ for the correlation between $Y$ and $\hat Y$ in both single and multiple regression.
If no intercept term was included in the model, then the symbol $R^2$ is ambiguous. It is usually intended as the coefficient of determination, but this will generally be calculated in a different way to usual, so take care when reading the output from your statistical software. Then it is no longer the same as the square of the multiple correlation $R$, nor in the bivariate case will it equal $r^2$! Indeed the coefficient of determination can even become negative when an intercept term is excluded, in which case "R-squared" is clearly a misnomer.
$(*)$ It's possible for the correlation between $y$ and $\hat y$ to become negative if no intercept term is included, e.g. $\{(0,2), (1,0), (2,1)\}$ has OLS best-fit $\hat y = 0.4x$ without an intercept, and $\text{Corr}(y, \hat y) = \text{Corr}(x,y) = -0.5$.