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Mar 18, 2016 at 3:55 comment added Dave M Thanks; I noticed that if x1 is not standardized mean=0, sd=1, and you'd rather not rescale it, you'll need to modify the line: X2 <- mar.fun(n) to X2 <- mar.fun(n,mean(x),sd(x)) to get the desired correlation between x1 and x2
Oct 15, 2013 at 1:07 comment added zzk I know this is old, but I also want to note that this method won't work for non-positive definite correlation matrices. E.g - a correlation of -1.
Oct 5, 2011 at 10:11 history edited Felix S CC BY-SA 3.0
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Sep 8, 2011 at 12:31 history edited Felix S CC BY-SA 3.0
Clarified "exact correlation" vs. "population correation"
Sep 8, 2011 at 11:51 history edited Felix S CC BY-SA 3.0
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Sep 2, 2011 at 9:42 vote accept Felix S
Sep 3, 2011 at 16:12
Sep 2, 2011 at 9:42 history edited Felix S CC BY-SA 3.0
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Sep 2, 2011 at 6:53 history edited Felix S CC BY-SA 3.0
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Sep 2, 2011 at 6:53 comment added Felix S The "small correction to rho" was in the original post and is described here. Actually, I don't really understand it; but an investigation of 50000 simulated correlations with rho = .3 shows that without the "small correction" an average of r's of .299 is produced, while with the correction an average of .312 (which is the value of the corrected rho) is produced. Therefore I removed that part from the function.
Sep 1, 2011 at 8:15 comment added Wolfgang It is easy to show that, except for that "small correction to rho" (whose purpose in this context eludes me), this is exactly the same as what ttnphns suggested earlier. The method is simply based on the Choleski decomposition of the correlation matrix to obtain the desired transformation matrix. See, for example: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/…. And yes, this will only give you two vectors whose population correlation is equal to rho.
Aug 31, 2011 at 21:18 comment added caracal It seems this is only an approximate solution, i.e., the empirical correlation is not exactly equal to $\rho$. Or am I missing something?
Aug 31, 2011 at 17:51 history answered Felix S CC BY-SA 3.0