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Sep 7, 2015 at 22:46 comment added Glen_b Because a better fit is possible if the estimate, $b_2$, is allowed to move from being forced to be 0. (NB it's best to have your notation distinguish your estimates from the thing they're estimating.)
Sep 7, 2015 at 15:45 comment added Ben Bolker because the $a$ parameter is shared between the two groups, so fitting to both groups requires a compromise between the best-fitting values for the two groups ... ?
Sep 7, 2015 at 15:33 history asked Miguel CC BY-SA 3.0