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Oct 28, 2015 at 11:50 vote accept Plissken
Oct 28, 2015 at 11:47 comment added Plissken @RichardHardy: Yes I know how to rewrite a VAR to a VECM and I was thinking about that as well at one point but didn't think there would such a mistake in the paper. It was after all published in the Journal of Econometrics. I was thinking that there was something else I had missed somehow. Thanks for the comment.
Oct 27, 2015 at 20:39 answer added hejseb timeline score: 4
Oct 27, 2015 at 20:37 comment added Richard Hardy Usually when going from levels to first differences, the number of lags changes by one. E.g. given a VECM$(p)$ process, the corresponding process in levels is VAR$(p+1)$. So perhaps (17) should have one lag less than it has (the last lag is included by mistake)?
Oct 27, 2015 at 20:26 comment added Richard Hardy I'll try a simple argument: the formulas (16) and (17) in the paper cannot match unless $\gamma'_{ip}=0$ because otherwise (17) involves $F_{t-p-1}$ (coming from $\Delta F_{t-p}$) while (16) does not involve $F_{t-p-1}$. Does that make sense?
Oct 27, 2015 at 19:56 history edited Plissken CC BY-SA 3.0
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Oct 27, 2015 at 18:04 history asked Plissken CC BY-SA 3.0