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This is the reason why the ACF plot is helpful in indicating the number of lags, as in this MA($1$) process $\epsilon_t + 0.8 \epsilon_{t-1}$, in which only one lag shows significant correlation, and the PACF shows typical oscillating values that progressively decay:

enter image description here

In the game of whispers, the error at $t_2$ (pool) is "correlated" with the value at $t_3$ (Chrissy's pool); however, there is no "correlation" between $t_3$ and the error at $t_1$ (CC).

In the game of whispers, the error at $t_2$ (pool) is "correlated" with the value at $t_3$ (Chrissy's pool); however, there is no "correlation" between $t_3$ and the error at $t_1$ (CC).

This is the reason why the ACF plot is helpful in indicating the number of lags, as in this MA($1$) process $\epsilon_t + 0.8 \epsilon_{t-1}$, in which only one lag shows significant correlation, and the PACF shows typical oscillating values that progressively decay:

enter image description here

In the game of whispers, the error at $t_2$ (pool) is "correlated" with the value at $t_3$ (Chrissy's pool); however, there is no "correlation" between $t_3$ and the error at $t_1$ (CC).

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Identification of an AR model is often best done with the PACF.

For an AR model, the theoretical PACF “shuts off” past the order of the model. The phrase “shuts off” means that in theory the partial autocorrelations are equal to $0$ beyond that point. Put another way, the number of non-zero partial autocorrelations gives the order of the AR model. By the “order of the model” we mean the most extreme lag of x that is used as a predictor.

... a $k^{\text{th}}$ order autoregression, written as AR(k$k$), is a multiple linear regression in which the value of the series at any time t is a (linear) function of the values at times $t-1,t-2,\ldots,t-k:$

$$\begin{equation*} y_{t}=\beta_{0}+\beta_{1}y_{t-1}+\beta_{2}y_{t-2}+\cdots+\beta_{2}y_{t-k}+\epsilon_{t}. \end{equation*}$$

the message gets distorted as it is whispered from person to person, and the sentence is completely new after passing through two people. For instance, at time $t_2$ the message, i.e. "$\color{lime}{\small\text{CC}}$'s pool", is completely different in meaning from that at $t_o,$ i.e. "CV is cool!" The "correlation" that existed with $t_1$ ("$\color{lime}{\small\text{CC}}$ is cool!") in the word "CC""$\color{lime}{\small\text{CC}}$" is gone; there are no remaining identical words, and even the intonation ("!") has changed.

This pattern repeats itself in that: there is a word shared at any given two consecutive time stamps, which goes away if $t_k$ is compared to $t_{k-2}.$

However, in this process of introducing errors at each step there is a similarity that spans further than just one single step: Although Chrisy's pool is different in meaning to CC is cool!, there is no denying their phonetic similarities, its syllabic counts, or the rhyming of "pool" and "cool". Therefore it wouldn't be true that the correlation stops at $t_{k-1}.$ It does decay (exponentially) but it can be tracetraced downstream for a long time: compare $t_5$ (Missi's cruel) to $t_0$ (CV is cool!). There - there are still similarities.

This explains the correlogram (ACF) in an AR(1$1$) processes (e.g. with coefficient $0.8:$$0.8$):

This is theIn this setting where the PACF wouldis useful in showing that once the effect of $t_{k-1}$ is controlled for, older timestamps than $t_{k-1}$ do not explain any of the remaining variance: all that remains is white noise:

Identification of an MA model is often best done with the ACF rather than the PACF.

For an MA model, the theoretical PACF does not shut off, but instead tapers toward 0$0$ in some manner. A clearer pattern for an MA model is in the ACF. The ACF will have non-zero autocorrelations only at lags involved in the model.

A moving average term in a time series model is a past error (multiplied by a coefficient).

The $q^{\text{th}}$-order moving average model, denoted by MA(q$q$) is

$$x_t = \mu + w_t +\theta_1w_{t-1}+\theta_2w_{t-2}+\dots + \theta_qw_{t-q}$$

with $w_t \overset{\text{iid}}{\sim} N(0, \sigma^2_w).$

In the game above, $t_{k-1}$ was enough to explain all prior errors in transmitting the message (single significan bar in PACF plot deemed significant), absorbing all prior errors, which had shaped the final message one error at a time. An alternative view of that AR(1$1$) process is as the addition of a long series of correlated mistakes (Koyck transformation), an MA($\infty$). Likewise, with some conditions, an MA(1$1$) process can be inverted into an AR($\infty$) process.

The confusing part then is why the significant spikes in the ACF stop after the number of lags in MA(q$q$). But in an MA(1$1$) process the covariance is different from zero only at consecutive times $\small \text{Cov}(X_t,X_{t-1})=\theta \sigma^2,$ because only then the expansion $\small {\text{Cov}}(\epsilon_t + \theta \epsilon_{t-1}, \epsilon_{t-1} + \theta \epsilon_{t_2})=\theta \text{Cov}(\epsilon_{t-1}, \epsilon_{t-1})$ will result in a match in timestampstime stamps - all other combinations will be zero due to iid condition.

It is somewhat intuitive that applying theApplying a PACF to a MA process will not result in "shut offs" as, but rather a result ofprogressive decay: controlling for the same concept of independenceexplanatory contribution of later random variables in the errorsprocess does not render more distant ones insignificant as it was the case in AR processes.

Identification of an AR model is often best done with the PACF.

For an AR model, the theoretical PACF “shuts off” past the order of the model. The phrase “shuts off” means that in theory the partial autocorrelations are equal to $0$ beyond that point. Put another way, the number of non-zero partial autocorrelations gives the order of the AR model. By the “order of the model” we mean the most extreme lag of x that is used as a predictor.

... a $k^{\text{th}}$ order autoregression, written as AR(k), is a multiple linear regression in which the value of the series at any time t is a (linear) function of the values at times $t-1,t-2,\ldots,t-k:$

$$\begin{equation*} y_{t}=\beta_{0}+\beta_{1}y_{t-1}+\beta_{2}y_{t-2}+\cdots+\beta_{2}y_{t-k}+\epsilon_{t}. \end{equation*}$$

the message gets distorted as it is whispered from person to person, and the sentence is completely new after passing through two people. For instance, at time $t_2$ the message, i.e. "$\color{lime}{\small\text{CC}}$'s pool" is completely different in meaning from that at $t_o,$ i.e. "CV is cool!" The "correlation" that existed with $t_1$ ("$\color{lime}{\small\text{CC}}$ is cool!") in the word "CC" is gone; there are no remaining identical words, and even the intonation ("!") has changed.

This pattern repeats itself in that there is a word shared at any given consecutive time stamps, which goes away if $t_k$ is compared to $t_{k-2}.$

However, in this process of introducing errors at each step there is a similarity that spans further than just one single step: Although Chrisy's pool is different in meaning to CC is cool!, there is no denying their phonetic similarities, its syllabic counts, the rhyming of "pool" and "cool". Therefore it wouldn't be true that the correlation stops at $t_{k-1}.$ It does decay (exponentially) but it can be trace downstream for a long time: compare $t_5$ (Missi's cruel) to $t_0$ (CV is cool!). There are still similarities.

This explains the correlogram (ACF) in an AR(1) processes with coefficient $0.8:$

This is the setting where the PACF would useful in showing that once the effect of $t_{k-1}$ is controlled for, older timestamps than $t_{k-1}$ do not explain any of the remaining variance: all that remains is white noise:

Identification of an MA model is often best done with the ACF rather than the PACF.

For an MA model, the theoretical PACF does not shut off, but instead tapers toward 0 in some manner. A clearer pattern for an MA model is in the ACF. The ACF will have non-zero autocorrelations only at lags involved in the model.

A moving average term in a time series model is a past error (multiplied by a coefficient).

The $q^{\text{th}}$-order moving average model, denoted by MA(q) is

$$x_t = \mu + w_t +\theta_1w_{t-1}+\theta_2w_{t-2}+\dots + \theta_qw_{t-q}$$

with $w_t \overset{\text{iid}}{\sim} N(0, \sigma^2_w).$

In the game above, $t_{k-1}$ was enough to explain all prior errors in transmitting the message (single bar in PACF plot deemed significant), absorbing all prior errors, which had shaped the final message one error at a time. An alternative view of that AR(1) process is as the addition of a long series of correlated mistakes (Koyck transformation), an MA($\infty$). Likewise, with some conditions, an MA(1) process can be inverted into an AR($\infty$) process.

The confusing part then is why the significant spikes in the ACF stop after the number of lags in MA(q). But in MA(1) process the covariance is different from zero only at consecutive times $\small \text{Cov}(X_t,X_{t-1})=\theta \sigma^2,$ because only then the expansion $\small {\text{Cov}}(\epsilon_t + \theta \epsilon_{t-1}, \epsilon_{t-1} + \theta \epsilon_{t_2})=\theta \text{Cov}(\epsilon_{t-1}, \epsilon_{t-1})$ will result in a match in timestamps - all other combinations will be zero due to iid condition.

It is somewhat intuitive that applying the PACF to a MA process will not result in "shut offs" as a result of the same concept of independence of the errors.

Identification of an AR model is often best done with the PACF.

For an AR model, the theoretical PACF “shuts off” past the order of the model. The phrase “shuts off” means that in theory the partial autocorrelations are equal to $0$ beyond that point. Put another way, the number of non-zero partial autocorrelations gives the order of the AR model. By the “order of the model” we mean the most extreme lag of x that is used as a predictor.

... a $k^{\text{th}}$ order autoregression, written as AR($k$), is a multiple linear regression in which the value of the series at any time t is a (linear) function of the values at times $t-1,t-2,\ldots,t-k:$

$$\begin{equation*} y_{t}=\beta_{0}+\beta_{1}y_{t-1}+\beta_{2}y_{t-2}+\cdots+\beta_{2}y_{t-k}+\epsilon_{t}. \end{equation*}$$

the message gets distorted as it is whispered from person to person, and the sentence is completely new after passing through two people. For instance, at time $t_2$ the message, i.e. "$\color{lime}{\small\text{CC}}$'s pool", is completely different in meaning from that at $t_o,$ i.e. "CV is cool!" The "correlation" that existed with $t_1$ ("$\color{lime}{\small\text{CC}}$ is cool!") in the word "$\color{lime}{\small\text{CC}}$" is gone; there are no remaining identical words, and even the intonation ("!") has changed.

This pattern repeats itself: there is a word shared at any given two consecutive time stamps, which goes away if $t_k$ is compared to $t_{k-2}.$

However, in this process of introducing errors at each step there is a similarity that spans further than just one single step: Although Chrisy's pool is different in meaning to CC is cool!, there is no denying their phonetic similarities or the rhyming of "pool" and "cool". Therefore it wouldn't be true that the correlation stops at $t_{k-1}.$ It does decay (exponentially) but it can be traced downstream for a long time: compare $t_5$ (Missi's cruel) to $t_0$ (CV is cool!) - there are still similarities.

This explains the correlogram (ACF) in an AR($1$) processes (e.g. with coefficient $0.8$):

In this setting the PACF is useful in showing that once the effect of $t_{k-1}$ is controlled for, older timestamps than $t_{k-1}$ do not explain any of the remaining variance: all that remains is white noise:

Identification of an MA model is often best done with the ACF rather than the PACF.

For an MA model, the theoretical PACF does not shut off, but instead tapers toward $0$ in some manner. A clearer pattern for an MA model is in the ACF. The ACF will have non-zero autocorrelations only at lags involved in the model.

A moving average term in a time series model is a past error (multiplied by a coefficient).

The $q^{\text{th}}$-order moving average model, denoted by MA($q$) is

$$x_t = \mu + w_t +\theta_1w_{t-1}+\theta_2w_{t-2}+\dots + \theta_qw_{t-q}$$

with $w_t \overset{\text{iid}}{\sim} N(0, \sigma^2_w).$

In the game above, $t_{k-1}$ was enough to explain all prior errors in transmitting the message (single significan bar in PACF plot), absorbing all prior errors, which had shaped the final message one error at a time. An alternative view of that AR($1$) process is as the addition of a long series of correlated mistakes (Koyck transformation), an MA($\infty$). Likewise, with some conditions, an MA($1$) process can be inverted into an AR($\infty$) process.

The confusing part then is why the significant spikes in the ACF stop after the number of lags in MA($q$). But in an MA($1$) process the covariance is different from zero only at consecutive times $\small \text{Cov}(X_t,X_{t-1})=\theta \sigma^2,$ because only then the expansion $\small {\text{Cov}}(\epsilon_t + \theta \epsilon_{t-1}, \epsilon_{t-1} + \theta \epsilon_{t_2})=\theta \text{Cov}(\epsilon_{t-1}, \epsilon_{t-1})$ will result in a match in time stamps - all other combinations will be zero due to iid condition.

Applying a PACF to a MA process will not result in "shut offs", but rather a progressive decay: controlling for the explanatory contribution of later random variables in the process does not render more distant ones insignificant as it was the case in AR processes.

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Antoni Parellada
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Identification of an AR model is often best done with the PACF.

For an AR model, the theoretical PACF “shuts off” past the order of the model. The phrase “shuts off” means that in theory the partial autocorrelations are equal to 0$0$ beyond that point. Put another way, the number of non-zero partial autocorrelations gives the order of the AR model. By the “order of the model” we mean the most extreme lag of x that is used as a predictor.

... a $k^{\text{th}}$ order autoregression, written as AR(k), is a multiple linear regression in which the value of the series at any time t is a (linear) function of the values at times $t-1,t-2,\ldots,t-k:$

$$\begin{equation*} y_{t}=\beta_{0}+\beta_{1}y_{t-1}+\beta_{2}y_{t-2}+\cdots+\beta_{2}y_{t-k}+\epsilon_{t}. \end{equation*}$$

$$\begin{equation*} y_{t}=\beta_{0}+\beta_{1}y_{t-1}+\beta_{2}y_{t-2}+\cdots+\beta_{2}y_{t-k}+\epsilon_{t}. \end{equation*}$$

This equation looks like a regression model, as indicated on the linked paged... So what is a possiblepossible intuition of what we are doing...

enter image description hereenter image description here

the message gets distorted as it is whispered from person to person, and all traces of resemblancethe sentence is completely new after passing through two people. For instance, at time $t_2$ the message, i.e. "$\color{lime}{\small\text{CC}}$'s pool" is completely different in meaning from that at $t_o,$ i.e. "CV is cool!" The "correlation" that existed with $t_1$ (any truthful"$\color{lime}{\small\text{CC}}$ is cool!") in the word "CC" is gone; there are no remaining identical words, and even the intonation ("!") has changed.

This pattern repeats itself in that there is a word shared at any given consecutive time stamps, which goes away if you will$t_k$ is compared to $t_{k-2}.$

However, in this process of introducing errors at each step there is a similarity that spans further than just one single step: Although Chrisy's pool is different in meaning to CC is cool!, there is no denying their phonetic similarities, its syllabic counts, the rhyming of "pool" and "cool". Therefore it wouldn't be true that the correlation stops at $t_{k-1}.$ It does decay (exponentially) but it can be trace downstream for a long time: compare $t_5$ (Missi's cruel) to $t_0$ (CV is cool!). There are lost afterstill similarities.

This explains the red participantcorrelogram (ACF) in an AR(1) processes with coefficient $0.8:$

enter image description here

Multiple, progressively offset sequences are correlated, discarding any contribution of the intermediate steps. PACFThis would tell us thatbe the coefficients forgraph of the blue andoperations involved:

enter image description here

This is the yellow participants are non-contributorysetting where the PACF would useful in showing that once the effect of the brown and red participants are accounted$t_{k-1}$ is controlled for, older timestamps than (the green participant at the end$t_{k-1}$ do not explain any of the line doesn't distort the message).remaining variance: all that remains is white noise:

enter image description here

a very similar process to the telephone game - it'll come a point, when there won't be any variability in the signal of the actual initial time series found in progressively more distant snippets of itself.

Identification of an MA model is often best done with the ACF rather than the PACF.

For an MA model, the theoretical PACF does not shut off, but instead tapers toward 0 in some manner. A clearer pattern for an MA model is in the ACF. The ACF will have non-zero autocorrelations only at lags involved in the model.

A moving average term in a time series model is a past error (multiplied by a coefficient).

The $q^{\text{th}}$-order moving average model, denoted by MA(q) is

$$x_t = \mu + w_t +\theta_1w_{t-1}+\theta_2w_{t-2}+\dots + \theta_qw_{t-q}$$

with $w_t \overset{\text{iid}}{\sim} N(0, \sigma^2_w).$

$$x_t = \mu + w_t +\theta_1w_{t-1}+\theta_2w_{t-2}+\dots + \theta_qw_{t-q}$$ It turns out that the behavior of the ACF and the PACF are flipped compared to AR processes:

with $w_t \overset{iid}{\sim} N(0, \sigma^2_w).$enter image description here

HereIn the game above, it is not$t_{k-1}$ was enough to explain all prior errors in transmitting the message resemblance across time points that is searched backwards(single bar in time step-by-stepPACF plot deemed significant), but rather the contribution of the noiseabsorbing all prior errors, which I picture ashad shaped the often massive deviations thatfinal message one error at a random walk can lead along the time line:

enter image description here

Multiple, progressively offset sequences are correlated, discarding any contribution. An alternative view of that AR(1) process is as the intermediate stepsaddition of a long series of correlated mistakes (Koyck transformation), an MA($\infty$). This wouldLikewise, with some conditions, an MA(1) process can be the graph of the operations involved:inverted into an AR($\infty$) process.

enter image description here$$x_t = - \theta x_{t-1} - \theta^2 x_{t-2} - \theta^3 x_{t-3}+\cdots +\epsilon_t$$

In this regard, "CVThe confusing part then is cool!"why the significant spikes in the ACF stop after the number of lags in MA(q). But in MA(1) process the covariance is not completely different than "Naomi hasfrom zero only at consecutive times $\small \text{Cov}(X_t,X_{t-1})=\theta \sigma^2,$ because only then the expansion $\small {\text{Cov}}(\epsilon_t + \theta \epsilon_{t-1}, \epsilon_{t-1} + \theta \epsilon_{t_2})=\theta \text{Cov}(\epsilon_{t-1}, \epsilon_{t-1})$ will result in a pool"match in timestamps - all other combinations will be zero due to iid condition. From

In the noise pointgame of viewwhispers, the rhymes are stillerror at $t_2$ (pool) is "correlated" with the value at $t_3$ (Chrissy's pool); however, there allis no "correlation" between $t_3$ and the wayerror at $t_1$ (CC).

It is somewhat intuitive that applying the PACF to a MA process will not result in "shut offs" as a result of the beginningsame concept of independence of the gameerrors.

Identification of an AR model is often best done with the PACF.

For an AR model, the theoretical PACF “shuts off” past the order of the model. The phrase “shuts off” means that in theory the partial autocorrelations are equal to 0 beyond that point. Put another way, the number of non-zero partial autocorrelations gives the order of the AR model. By the “order of the model” we mean the most extreme lag of x that is used as a predictor.

... a $k^{\text{th}}$ order autoregression, written as AR(k), is a multiple linear regression in which the value of the series at any time t is a (linear) function of the values at times $t-1,t-2,\ldots,t-k:$

$$\begin{equation*} y_{t}=\beta_{0}+\beta_{1}y_{t-1}+\beta_{2}y_{t-2}+\cdots+\beta_{2}y_{t-k}+\epsilon_{t}. \end{equation*}$$

This equation looks like a regression model, as indicated on the linked paged... So what is a possible intuition of what we are doing...

enter image description here

the message gets distorted as it is whispered from person to person, and all traces of resemblance (any truthful words, if you will) are lost after the red participant. PACF would tell us that the coefficients for the blue and the yellow participants are non-contributory once the effect of the brown and red participants are accounted for (the green participant at the end of the line doesn't distort the message).

a very similar process to the telephone game - it'll come a point, when there won't be any variability in the signal of the actual initial time series found in progressively more distant snippets of itself.

Identification of an MA model is often best done with the ACF rather than the PACF.

For an MA model, the theoretical PACF does not shut off, but instead tapers toward 0 in some manner. A clearer pattern for an MA model is in the ACF. The ACF will have non-zero autocorrelations only at lags involved in the model.

A moving average term in a time series model is a past error (multiplied by a coefficient).

The $q^{\text{th}}$-order moving average model, denoted by MA(q) is

$$x_t = \mu + w_t +\theta_1w_{t-1}+\theta_2w_{t-2}+\dots + \theta_qw_{t-q}$$

with $w_t \overset{iid}{\sim} N(0, \sigma^2_w).$

Here, it is not the message resemblance across time points that is searched backwards in time step-by-step, but rather the contribution of the noise, which I picture as the often massive deviations that a random walk can lead along the time line:

enter image description here

Multiple, progressively offset sequences are correlated, discarding any contribution of the intermediate steps. This would be the graph of the operations involved:

enter image description here

In this regard, "CV is cool!" is not completely different than "Naomi has a pool". From the noise point of view, the rhymes are still there all the way to the beginning of the game.

Identification of an AR model is often best done with the PACF.

For an AR model, the theoretical PACF “shuts off” past the order of the model. The phrase “shuts off” means that in theory the partial autocorrelations are equal to $0$ beyond that point. Put another way, the number of non-zero partial autocorrelations gives the order of the AR model. By the “order of the model” we mean the most extreme lag of x that is used as a predictor.

... a $k^{\text{th}}$ order autoregression, written as AR(k), is a multiple linear regression in which the value of the series at any time t is a (linear) function of the values at times $t-1,t-2,\ldots,t-k:$

$$\begin{equation*} y_{t}=\beta_{0}+\beta_{1}y_{t-1}+\beta_{2}y_{t-2}+\cdots+\beta_{2}y_{t-k}+\epsilon_{t}. \end{equation*}$$

This equation looks like a regression model, as indicated on the linked paged... So what is a possible intuition...

enter image description here

the message gets distorted as it is whispered from person to person, and the sentence is completely new after passing through two people. For instance, at time $t_2$ the message, i.e. "$\color{lime}{\small\text{CC}}$'s pool" is completely different in meaning from that at $t_o,$ i.e. "CV is cool!" The "correlation" that existed with $t_1$ ("$\color{lime}{\small\text{CC}}$ is cool!") in the word "CC" is gone; there are no remaining identical words, and even the intonation ("!") has changed.

This pattern repeats itself in that there is a word shared at any given consecutive time stamps, which goes away if $t_k$ is compared to $t_{k-2}.$

However, in this process of introducing errors at each step there is a similarity that spans further than just one single step: Although Chrisy's pool is different in meaning to CC is cool!, there is no denying their phonetic similarities, its syllabic counts, the rhyming of "pool" and "cool". Therefore it wouldn't be true that the correlation stops at $t_{k-1}.$ It does decay (exponentially) but it can be trace downstream for a long time: compare $t_5$ (Missi's cruel) to $t_0$ (CV is cool!). There are still similarities.

This explains the correlogram (ACF) in an AR(1) processes with coefficient $0.8:$

enter image description here

Multiple, progressively offset sequences are correlated, discarding any contribution of the intermediate steps. This would be the graph of the operations involved:

enter image description here

This is the setting where the PACF would useful in showing that once the effect of $t_{k-1}$ is controlled for, older timestamps than $t_{k-1}$ do not explain any of the remaining variance: all that remains is white noise:

enter image description here

Identification of an MA model is often best done with the ACF rather than the PACF.

For an MA model, the theoretical PACF does not shut off, but instead tapers toward 0 in some manner. A clearer pattern for an MA model is in the ACF. The ACF will have non-zero autocorrelations only at lags involved in the model.

A moving average term in a time series model is a past error (multiplied by a coefficient).

The $q^{\text{th}}$-order moving average model, denoted by MA(q) is

$$x_t = \mu + w_t +\theta_1w_{t-1}+\theta_2w_{t-2}+\dots + \theta_qw_{t-q}$$

with $w_t \overset{\text{iid}}{\sim} N(0, \sigma^2_w).$

It turns out that the behavior of the ACF and the PACF are flipped compared to AR processes:

enter image description here

In the game above, $t_{k-1}$ was enough to explain all prior errors in transmitting the message (single bar in PACF plot deemed significant), absorbing all prior errors, which had shaped the final message one error at a time. An alternative view of that AR(1) process is as the addition of a long series of correlated mistakes (Koyck transformation), an MA($\infty$). Likewise, with some conditions, an MA(1) process can be inverted into an AR($\infty$) process.

$$x_t = - \theta x_{t-1} - \theta^2 x_{t-2} - \theta^3 x_{t-3}+\cdots +\epsilon_t$$

The confusing part then is why the significant spikes in the ACF stop after the number of lags in MA(q). But in MA(1) process the covariance is different from zero only at consecutive times $\small \text{Cov}(X_t,X_{t-1})=\theta \sigma^2,$ because only then the expansion $\small {\text{Cov}}(\epsilon_t + \theta \epsilon_{t-1}, \epsilon_{t-1} + \theta \epsilon_{t_2})=\theta \text{Cov}(\epsilon_{t-1}, \epsilon_{t-1})$ will result in a match in timestamps - all other combinations will be zero due to iid condition.

In the game of whispers, the error at $t_2$ (pool) is "correlated" with the value at $t_3$ (Chrissy's pool); however, there is no "correlation" between $t_3$ and the error at $t_1$ (CC).

It is somewhat intuitive that applying the PACF to a MA process will not result in "shut offs" as a result of the same concept of independence of the errors.

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