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Jun 30, 2017 at 7:54 vote accept Chris
Jun 28, 2017 at 10:48 comment added Chris The two variables I am looking at are highly correlated. In fact the background of my statistical analysis is to show that they have a high correlation, ideally i would have the relation $X_1>X_2$, therefore i won't be able to use the distribution you suggested.
Jun 22, 2017 at 22:53 comment added Chris Haug It is impossible for a "difference of count data" to be normally distributed. You do not need to test for this.
Jun 22, 2017 at 22:33 answer added Evgeniy Riabenko timeline score: 1
Jun 22, 2017 at 16:29 history tweeted twitter.com/StackStats/status/877926514397822976
Jun 22, 2017 at 14:27 comment added Sycorax The difference of two independent Poisson random variables is a Skellam distribution. But if the underlying variables are not Poisson or are not independent, this may not be the appropriate model. en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Skellam_distribution
Jun 22, 2017 at 9:51 review First posts
Jun 22, 2017 at 13:32
Jun 22, 2017 at 9:47 history asked Chris CC BY-SA 3.0