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Timeline for Haldane's prior Beta(0,0) - Part 1

Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0

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Mar 2, 2018 at 18:48 comment added Xi'an Imho, it is a measure (or the density of a measure against the Lebesgue measure onm $(0,1)$) rather than a distribution. As the notion of distribution is not set outside "probability distributions".
Mar 2, 2018 at 18:41 comment added Tim @Xi'an as a distribution it lacks the constant.
Mar 2, 2018 at 18:35 comment added Xi'an @Tim: in which sense $f(p) \propto p^{-1}(1-p)^{-1}$ is approximate? There is no imprecision in defining the prior without a constant since all choices of a constant lead to the same posterior (if defined) or none( if undefined).
Feb 1, 2018 at 10:07 vote accept AlexMe
Jan 31, 2018 at 22:30 comment added Tim @AlexStat it follows from $\Gamma(0) = \infty$
Jan 31, 2018 at 22:01 comment added AlexMe Thanks @Tim; can it be shown how the Beta function approaches $\infty$ as $\alpha, \beta→0$.
Jan 31, 2018 at 21:12 history answered Tim CC BY-SA 3.0