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Jul 30, 2012 at 11:03 vote accept vonjd
Jul 30, 2012 at 5:17 answer added Michael R. Chernick timeline score: 5
Jul 30, 2012 at 4:48 comment added Douglas Zare You don't have to go to higher moments to see that a not all mixtures are normal. Mixtures of normal distributions don't have to be unimodal, although they can be. In addition, since distinct normal distributions have distinct tail asymptotics, you can read off the components from the tails.
Jul 29, 2012 at 21:56 comment added cardinal If you have suspicions that something might not be true, it's good to look for simple (counter)examples. Consider $X_1$ and $X_2$ independent Bernoulli random variables. A mixture of these is still Bernoulli (why?), but the sum of them could, in general, take the value $2$ (in addition to $0$ or $1$). So, clearly they can't be the same thing. :)
Jul 29, 2012 at 17:15 answer added assumednormal timeline score: 19
Jul 29, 2012 at 17:05 comment added assumednormal I'll write it up now.
Jul 29, 2012 at 16:49 comment added Dilip Sarwate @Max, that's an answer!
Jul 29, 2012 at 16:48 comment added Dilip Sarwate Two independent random variables that are normally distributed have a jointly normal distribution. No "not necessarily jointly" but instead ""so that they are also jointly normal".
Jul 29, 2012 at 16:43 comment added assumednormal A mixture of two normals is not the sum of two normal random variables. It's a random variable whose PDF and CDF are weighted sums of the individuals PDFs and CDFs.
Jul 29, 2012 at 16:31 history asked vonjd CC BY-SA 3.0