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Nov 3, 2021 at 16:30 comment added Joram Soch @shimao: Thanks, I have added your proof here.
Apr 23, 2018 at 1:33 comment added shimao @me_Tchaikovsky yes, i think that is correct
Apr 22, 2018 at 3:12 comment added meTchaikovsky @shimao from the proof, I think KL divergence is invariant to transformations which have an inverse which is differentiable, is it correct?
Apr 22, 2018 at 2:27 vote accept meTchaikovsky
Apr 22, 2018 at 1:45 comment added meTchaikovsky @shimao I found my mistake, I forget that I'm integrating over a new distribution so that I mistook $\int dx' P_1(x')(x'-\mu_1)^2 = \sigma_1^2$, which should be $\frac{\sigma_1^2}{m^2}$
Apr 22, 2018 at 1:31 comment added meTchaikovsky @ jbowman sorry, I haven't made myself clear, what I meant is that I have $P_2(x') = P_2(x)\frac{dx}{dx'} = \sigma P_2(x)$. Since we have the inverse of the affine transformation $x = \mu_1 + \sigma (x' - \mu_1)$, then I substitute the $x$ in $\sigma P_2(x)$ by $x'$, thus I have $P_2(x')$ that is represented by $x'$.
Apr 22, 2018 at 1:19 comment added jbowman You can't have it that $P_2(x')$ depends on $x'$ but not $x$ and also that $x$ is an affine transformation of $x'$.
Apr 21, 2018 at 22:31 comment added meTchaikovsky I cannot see what is wrong with the substitution that I did. From $P_2(x')dx' = P_2(x)dx $, I have $P_2(x') = P_2(x)\sigma$ which is exactly what you pointed out. However, $P_2(x')$ is dependent of $x'$ but not $x$, so I substitute $x$ with $x'$ by $x = \mu_1+\sigma(x'-\mu_1)$, so $P_2(x')$ will be that normal distribution. What is wrong with this substitution?
Apr 21, 2018 at 15:43 history answered shimao CC BY-SA 3.0