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kjetil b halvorsen
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Firstly, after taking the time to digest the MIT chapter and the comments, the most important thing to note is that what MIT calls empirical bootstrap and percentile bootstrap differ - The empirical bootstrap and the percentile bootstrap will be different in that what they call the empirical bootstrap will be the interval $[\bar{x*}-\delta_{.1},\bar{x*}-\delta_{.9}]$ whereas $$[\bar{x*}-\delta_{.1}, \bar{x*}-\delta_{.9}]$$ whereas the percentile bootstrap will have the confidence interval $[\bar{x*}-\delta_{.9},\bar{x*}-\delta_{.1}]$. $$[\bar{x*}-\delta_{.9},\bar{x*}-\delta_{.1}].$$
I would further argue that as per Efron-Hastie the percentile bootstrap is more canonical. The key to what MIT calls the empirical bootstrap is to look at the distribution of $\delta = \bar{x} - \mu$ . But why $\bar{x} - \mu$, why not $\mu-\bar{x}$. Just as reasonable. Further, the delta's for the second set is the defiled percentile bootstrap !. Efron uses the percentile and I think that the distribution of the actual means should be most fundamental. I would add that in addition to the Efron and Hastie and the 1979 paper of Efron mentioned in another answer, Efron wrote a book on the bootstrap in 1982. In all 3 sources there are mentions of percentile bootstrap, but I find no mention of what the MIT people call the empirical bootstrap. In addition, I'm pretty sure that they calculate the percentile bootstrap incorrectly. Below is an R notebook I wrote.

Hide orig.boot = c(30, 37, 36, 43, 42, 43, 43, 46, 41, 42) boot = read.table(file = "boot.txt") means = as.numeric(lapply(boot,mean)) # lapply creates lists, not vectors. I use it ALWAYS for data frames. mu = mean(orig.boot) del = sort(means - mu) # the differences mu means del And

orig.boot = c(30, 37, 36, 43, 42, 43, 43, 46, 41, 42)
boot = read.table(file = "boot.txt")
means = as.numeric(lapply(boot,mean)) 
# lapply creates lists, not vectors.  I use it ALWAYS for data frames.
mu = mean(orig.boot)
del = sort(means - mu) # the differences
mu
means
del

And further

Hide mu - sort(del)[3] mu - sort(del)[18] So

mu - sort(del)[3]
mu - sort(del)[18]

So we get the same answer they do. In particular I have the same 10th and 90th percentile. I want to point out that the range from the 10th to the 90th percentile is 3. This is the same as MIT has.

Hide
means
sort(means)

Hide means sort(means) I’mI’m getting different means. Important point- my 10th and 90th mean 38.9 and 41.9 . This is what I would expect. They are different because I am considering distances from 40.3, so I am reversing the subtraction order. Note that 40.3-38.9 = 1.4 (and 40.3 - 1.6 = 38.7). So what they call the percentile bootstrap gives a distribution that depends on the actual means we get and not the differences.

Key PointKey Point
The empirical bootstrap and the percentile bootstrap will be different in that what they call the empirical bootstrap will be the interval [x∗¯−δ.1,x∗¯−δ x∗¯−δ.9][x∗¯−δ.1,x∗¯−δ x∗¯−δ.9] whereas the percentile bootstrap will have the confidence interval [x∗¯−δ.9,x∗¯−δ x∗¯−δ.1][x∗¯−δ.9,x∗¯−δ x∗¯−δ.1]. Typically they shouldn’t be that different. I have my thoughts as to which I would prefer, but I am not the definitive source that OP requests. Thought experiment- should the two converge if the sample size increases. Notice that there are 210210 possible samples of size 10. Let’s not go nuts, but what about if we take 2000 samples- a size usually considered sufficient.

Hide set.seed(1234) # reproducible boot.2k = matrix(NA,10,2000) for( i in c(1:2000)){ boot.2k[,i] = sample(orig.boot,10,replace = T) } mu2k = sort(apply(boot.2k,2,mean)) Let’s

set.seed(1234) # reproducible
boot.2k = matrix(NA,10,2000)
for( i in c(1:2000)){
  boot.2k[,i] = sample(orig.boot,10,replace = TRUE)
}
mu2k = sort(apply(boot.2k, 2, mean))

Let’s look at mu2k

Hide
summary(mu2k)
mean(mu2k)-mu2k[200]
mean(mu2k) - mu2k[1801]

Hide summary(mu2k) mean(mu2k)-mu2k[200] mean(mu2k) - mu2k[1801] AndAnd the actual values-

Hide
mu2k[200]
mu2k[1801]

Hide mu2k[200] mu2k[1801] SoSo now what MIT calls the empirical bootstrap gives an 80% confidence interval of [,40.3 -1.87,40 40.3 +1.64] or [38.43,41 41.94] and the their bad percentile distribution gives [38.5,42] 42]. This of course makes sense because the law of large numbers will say in this case that the distribution should converge to a normal distribution. Incidentally, this is discussed in Efron and Hastie. The first method they give for calculating the bootstrap interval is to use mu =/- 1.96 sd. As they point out, for large enough sample size this will work. They then give an example for which n=2000$n=2000$ is not large enough to get an approximately normal distribution of the data.

Firstly, after taking the time to digest the MIT chapter and the comments, the most important thing to note is that what MIT calls empirical bootstrap and percentile bootstrap differ - The empirical bootstrap and the percentile bootstrap will be different in that what they call the empirical bootstrap will be the interval $[\bar{x*}-\delta_{.1},\bar{x*}-\delta_{.9}]$ whereas the percentile bootstrap will have the confidence interval $[\bar{x*}-\delta_{.9},\bar{x*}-\delta_{.1}]$.
I would further argue that as per Efron-Hastie the percentile bootstrap is more canonical. The key to what MIT calls the empirical bootstrap is to look at the distribution of $\delta = \bar{x} - \mu$ . But why $\bar{x} - \mu$, why not $\mu-\bar{x}$. Just as reasonable. Further, the delta's for the second set is the defiled percentile bootstrap !. Efron uses the percentile and I think that the distribution of the actual means should be most fundamental. I would add that in addition to the Efron and Hastie and the 1979 paper of Efron mentioned in another answer, Efron wrote a book on the bootstrap in 1982. In all 3 sources there are mentions of percentile bootstrap, but I find no mention of what the MIT people call the empirical bootstrap. In addition, I'm pretty sure that they calculate the percentile bootstrap incorrectly. Below is an R notebook I wrote.

Hide orig.boot = c(30, 37, 36, 43, 42, 43, 43, 46, 41, 42) boot = read.table(file = "boot.txt") means = as.numeric(lapply(boot,mean)) # lapply creates lists, not vectors. I use it ALWAYS for data frames. mu = mean(orig.boot) del = sort(means - mu) # the differences mu means del And further

Hide mu - sort(del)[3] mu - sort(del)[18] So we get the same answer they do. In particular I have the same 10th and 90th percentile. I want to point out that the range from the 10th to the 90th percentile is 3. This is the same as MIT has.

Hide means sort(means) I’m getting different means. Important point- my 10th and 90th mean 38.9 and 41.9 . This is what I would expect. They are different because I am considering distances from 40.3, so I am reversing the subtraction order. Note that 40.3-38.9 = 1.4 (and 40.3 - 1.6 = 38.7). So what they call the percentile bootstrap gives a distribution that depends on the actual means we get and not the differences.

Key Point The empirical bootstrap and the percentile bootstrap will be different in that what they call the empirical bootstrap will be the interval [x∗¯−δ.1,x∗¯−δ.9][x∗¯−δ.1,x∗¯−δ.9] whereas the percentile bootstrap will have the confidence interval [x∗¯−δ.9,x∗¯−δ.1][x∗¯−δ.9,x∗¯−δ.1]. Typically they shouldn’t be that different. I have my thoughts as to which I would prefer, but I am not the definitive source that OP requests. Thought experiment- should the two converge if the sample size increases. Notice that there are 210210 possible samples of size 10. Let’s not go nuts, but what about if we take 2000 samples- a size usually considered sufficient.

Hide set.seed(1234) # reproducible boot.2k = matrix(NA,10,2000) for( i in c(1:2000)){ boot.2k[,i] = sample(orig.boot,10,replace = T) } mu2k = sort(apply(boot.2k,2,mean)) Let’s look at mu2k

Hide summary(mu2k) mean(mu2k)-mu2k[200] mean(mu2k) - mu2k[1801] And the actual values-

Hide mu2k[200] mu2k[1801] So now what MIT calls the empirical bootstrap gives an 80% confidence interval of [,40.3 -1.87,40.3 +1.64] or [38.43,41.94] and the their bad percentile distribution gives [38.5,42]. This of course makes sense because the law of large numbers will say in this case that the distribution should converge to a normal distribution. Incidentally, this is discussed in Efron and Hastie. The first method they give for calculating the bootstrap interval is to use mu =/- 1.96 sd. As they point out, for large enough sample size this will work. They then give an example for which n=2000 is not large enough to get an approximately normal distribution of the data.

Firstly, after taking the time to digest the MIT chapter and the comments, the most important thing to note is that what MIT calls empirical bootstrap and percentile bootstrap differ - The empirical bootstrap and the percentile bootstrap will be different in that what they call the empirical bootstrap will be the interval $$[\bar{x*}-\delta_{.1}, \bar{x*}-\delta_{.9}]$$ whereas the percentile bootstrap will have the confidence interval $$[\bar{x*}-\delta_{.9},\bar{x*}-\delta_{.1}].$$
I would further argue that as per Efron-Hastie the percentile bootstrap is more canonical. The key to what MIT calls the empirical bootstrap is to look at the distribution of $\delta = \bar{x} - \mu$ . But why $\bar{x} - \mu$, why not $\mu-\bar{x}$. Just as reasonable. Further, the delta's for the second set is the defiled percentile bootstrap !. Efron uses the percentile and I think that the distribution of the actual means should be most fundamental. I would add that in addition to the Efron and Hastie and the 1979 paper of Efron mentioned in another answer, Efron wrote a book on the bootstrap in 1982. In all 3 sources there are mentions of percentile bootstrap, but I find no mention of what the MIT people call the empirical bootstrap. In addition, I'm pretty sure that they calculate the percentile bootstrap incorrectly. Below is an R notebook I wrote.

Hide

orig.boot = c(30, 37, 36, 43, 42, 43, 43, 46, 41, 42)
boot = read.table(file = "boot.txt")
means = as.numeric(lapply(boot,mean)) 
# lapply creates lists, not vectors.  I use it ALWAYS for data frames.
mu = mean(orig.boot)
del = sort(means - mu) # the differences
mu
means
del

And further

Hide

mu - sort(del)[3]
mu - sort(del)[18]

So we get the same answer they do. In particular I have the same 10th and 90th percentile. I want to point out that the range from the 10th to the 90th percentile is 3. This is the same as MIT has.

Hide
means
sort(means)

I’m getting different means. Important point- my 10th and 90th mean 38.9 and 41.9 . This is what I would expect. They are different because I am considering distances from 40.3, so I am reversing the subtraction order. Note that 40.3-38.9 = 1.4 (and 40.3 - 1.6 = 38.7). So what they call the percentile bootstrap gives a distribution that depends on the actual means we get and not the differences.

Key Point
The empirical bootstrap and the percentile bootstrap will be different in that what they call the empirical bootstrap will be the interval [x∗¯−δ.1, x∗¯−δ.9][x∗¯−δ.1, x∗¯−δ.9] whereas the percentile bootstrap will have the confidence interval [x∗¯−δ.9, x∗¯−δ.1][x∗¯−δ.9, x∗¯−δ.1]. Typically they shouldn’t be that different. I have my thoughts as to which I would prefer, but I am not the definitive source that OP requests. Thought experiment- should the two converge if the sample size increases. Notice that there are 210210 possible samples of size 10. Let’s not go nuts, but what about if we take 2000 samples- a size usually considered sufficient.

Hide

set.seed(1234) # reproducible
boot.2k = matrix(NA,10,2000)
for( i in c(1:2000)){
  boot.2k[,i] = sample(orig.boot,10,replace = TRUE)
}
mu2k = sort(apply(boot.2k, 2, mean))

Let’s look at mu2k

Hide
summary(mu2k)
mean(mu2k)-mu2k[200]
mean(mu2k) - mu2k[1801]

And the actual values-

Hide
mu2k[200]
mu2k[1801]

So now what MIT calls the empirical bootstrap gives an 80% confidence interval of [,40.3 -1.87, 40.3 +1.64] or [38.43, 41.94] and the their bad percentile distribution gives [38.5, 42]. This of course makes sense because the law of large numbers will say in this case that the distribution should converge to a normal distribution. Incidentally, this is discussed in Efron and Hastie. The first method they give for calculating the bootstrap interval is to use mu =/- 1.96 sd. As they point out, for large enough sample size this will work. They then give an example for which $n=2000$ is not large enough to get an approximately normal distribution of the data.

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meh
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MAJOR ADD ON

Firstly, after taking the time to digest the MIT chapter and the comments, the most important thing to note is that what MIT calls empirical bootstrap and percentile bootstrap differ - The empirical bootstrap and the percentile bootstrap will be different in that what they call the empirical bootstrap will be the interval $[\bar{x*}-\delta_{.1},\bar{x*}-\delta_{.9}]$ whereas the percentile bootstrap will have the confidence interval $[\bar{x*}-\delta_{.9},\bar{x*}-\delta_{.1}]$.
I would further argue that as per Efron-Hastie the percentile bootstrap is more canonical. The key to what MIT calls the empirical bootstrap is to look at the distribution of $\delta = \bar{x} - \mu$ . But why $\bar{x} - \mu$, why not $\mu-\bar{x}$. Just as reasonable. Further, the delta's for the second set is the defiled percentile bootstrap !. Efron uses the percentile and I think that the distribution of the actual means should be most fundamental. I would add that in addition to the Efron and Hastie and the 1979 paper of Efron mentioned in another answer, Efron wrote a book on the bootstrap in 1982. In all 3 sources there are mentions of percentile bootstrap, but I find no mention of what the MIT people call the empirical bootstrap. In addition, I'm pretty sure that they calculate the percentile bootstrap incorrectly. Below is an R notebook I wrote.

Commments on the MIT reference First let’s get the MIT data into R. I did a simple cut and paste job of their bootstrap samples and saved it to boot.txt.

Hide orig.boot = c(30, 37, 36, 43, 42, 43, 43, 46, 41, 42) boot = read.table(file = "boot.txt") means = as.numeric(lapply(boot,mean)) # lapply creates lists, not vectors. I use it ALWAYS for data frames. mu = mean(orig.boot) del = sort(means - mu) # the differences mu means del And further

Hide mu - sort(del)[3] mu - sort(del)[18] So we get the same answer they do. In particular I have the same 10th and 90th percentile. I want to point out that the range from the 10th to the 90th percentile is 3. This is the same as MIT has.

What are my means?

Hide means sort(means) I’m getting different means. Important point- my 10th and 90th mean 38.9 and 41.9 . This is what I would expect. They are different because I am considering distances from 40.3, so I am reversing the subtraction order. Note that 40.3-38.9 = 1.4 (and 40.3 - 1.6 = 38.7). So what they call the percentile bootstrap gives a distribution that depends on the actual means we get and not the differences.

Key Point The empirical bootstrap and the percentile bootstrap will be different in that what they call the empirical bootstrap will be the interval [x∗¯−δ.1,x∗¯−δ.9][x∗¯−δ.1,x∗¯−δ.9] whereas the percentile bootstrap will have the confidence interval [x∗¯−δ.9,x∗¯−δ.1][x∗¯−δ.9,x∗¯−δ.1]. Typically they shouldn’t be that different. I have my thoughts as to which I would prefer, but I am not the definitive source that OP requests. Thought experiment- should the two converge if the sample size increases. Notice that there are 210210 possible samples of size 10. Let’s not go nuts, but what about if we take 2000 samples- a size usually considered sufficient.

Hide set.seed(1234) # reproducible boot.2k = matrix(NA,10,2000) for( i in c(1:2000)){ boot.2k[,i] = sample(orig.boot,10,replace = T) } mu2k = sort(apply(boot.2k,2,mean)) Let’s look at mu2k

Hide summary(mu2k) mean(mu2k)-mu2k[200] mean(mu2k) - mu2k[1801] And the actual values-

Hide mu2k[200] mu2k[1801] So now what MIT calls the empirical bootstrap gives an 80% confidence interval of [,40.3 -1.87,40.3 +1.64] or [38.43,41.94] and the their bad percentile distribution gives [38.5,42]. This of course makes sense because the law of large numbers will say in this case that the distribution should converge to a normal distribution. Incidentally, this is discussed in Efron and Hastie. The first method they give for calculating the bootstrap interval is to use mu =/- 1.96 sd. As they point out, for large enough sample size this will work. They then give an example for which n=2000 is not large enough to get an approximately normal distribution of the data.

Conclusions Firstly, I want to state the principle I use to decide questions of naming. “It’s my party I can cry if I want to.” While originally enunciated by Petula Clark, I think it also applies naming structures. So with sincere deference to MIT, I think that Bradley Efron deserves to name the various bootstrapping methods as he wishes. What does he do ? I can find no mention in Efron of ‘empirical bootstrap’, just percentile. So I will humbly disagree with Rice, MIT, et al. I would also point out that by the law of large numbers, as used in the MIT lecture, empirical and percentile should converge to the same number. To my taste, percentile bootstrap is intuitive, justified, and what the inventor of bootstrap had in mind. I would add that I took the time to do this just for my own edification, not anything else. In particular, I didn’t write Efron, which probably is what OP should do. I am most willing to stand corrected.

MAJOR ADD ON

Firstly, after taking the time to digest the MIT chapter and the comments, the most important thing to note is that what MIT calls empirical bootstrap and percentile bootstrap differ - The empirical bootstrap and the percentile bootstrap will be different in that what they call the empirical bootstrap will be the interval $[\bar{x*}-\delta_{.1},\bar{x*}-\delta_{.9}]$ whereas the percentile bootstrap will have the confidence interval $[\bar{x*}-\delta_{.9},\bar{x*}-\delta_{.1}]$.
I would further argue that as per Efron-Hastie the percentile bootstrap is more canonical. The key to what MIT calls the empirical bootstrap is to look at the distribution of $\delta = \bar{x} - \mu$ . But why $\bar{x} - \mu$, why not $\mu-\bar{x}$. Just as reasonable. Further, the delta's for the second set is the defiled percentile bootstrap !. Efron uses the percentile and I think that the distribution of the actual means should be most fundamental. I would add that in addition to the Efron and Hastie and the 1979 paper of Efron mentioned in another answer, Efron wrote a book on the bootstrap in 1982. In all 3 sources there are mentions of percentile bootstrap, but I find no mention of what the MIT people call the empirical bootstrap. In addition, I'm pretty sure that they calculate the percentile bootstrap incorrectly. Below is an R notebook I wrote.

Commments on the MIT reference First let’s get the MIT data into R. I did a simple cut and paste job of their bootstrap samples and saved it to boot.txt.

Hide orig.boot = c(30, 37, 36, 43, 42, 43, 43, 46, 41, 42) boot = read.table(file = "boot.txt") means = as.numeric(lapply(boot,mean)) # lapply creates lists, not vectors. I use it ALWAYS for data frames. mu = mean(orig.boot) del = sort(means - mu) # the differences mu means del And further

Hide mu - sort(del)[3] mu - sort(del)[18] So we get the same answer they do. In particular I have the same 10th and 90th percentile. I want to point out that the range from the 10th to the 90th percentile is 3. This is the same as MIT has.

What are my means?

Hide means sort(means) I’m getting different means. Important point- my 10th and 90th mean 38.9 and 41.9 . This is what I would expect. They are different because I am considering distances from 40.3, so I am reversing the subtraction order. Note that 40.3-38.9 = 1.4 (and 40.3 - 1.6 = 38.7). So what they call the percentile bootstrap gives a distribution that depends on the actual means we get and not the differences.

Key Point The empirical bootstrap and the percentile bootstrap will be different in that what they call the empirical bootstrap will be the interval [x∗¯−δ.1,x∗¯−δ.9][x∗¯−δ.1,x∗¯−δ.9] whereas the percentile bootstrap will have the confidence interval [x∗¯−δ.9,x∗¯−δ.1][x∗¯−δ.9,x∗¯−δ.1]. Typically they shouldn’t be that different. I have my thoughts as to which I would prefer, but I am not the definitive source that OP requests. Thought experiment- should the two converge if the sample size increases. Notice that there are 210210 possible samples of size 10. Let’s not go nuts, but what about if we take 2000 samples- a size usually considered sufficient.

Hide set.seed(1234) # reproducible boot.2k = matrix(NA,10,2000) for( i in c(1:2000)){ boot.2k[,i] = sample(orig.boot,10,replace = T) } mu2k = sort(apply(boot.2k,2,mean)) Let’s look at mu2k

Hide summary(mu2k) mean(mu2k)-mu2k[200] mean(mu2k) - mu2k[1801] And the actual values-

Hide mu2k[200] mu2k[1801] So now what MIT calls the empirical bootstrap gives an 80% confidence interval of [,40.3 -1.87,40.3 +1.64] or [38.43,41.94] and the their bad percentile distribution gives [38.5,42]. This of course makes sense because the law of large numbers will say in this case that the distribution should converge to a normal distribution. Incidentally, this is discussed in Efron and Hastie. The first method they give for calculating the bootstrap interval is to use mu =/- 1.96 sd. As they point out, for large enough sample size this will work. They then give an example for which n=2000 is not large enough to get an approximately normal distribution of the data.

Conclusions Firstly, I want to state the principle I use to decide questions of naming. “It’s my party I can cry if I want to.” While originally enunciated by Petula Clark, I think it also applies naming structures. So with sincere deference to MIT, I think that Bradley Efron deserves to name the various bootstrapping methods as he wishes. What does he do ? I can find no mention in Efron of ‘empirical bootstrap’, just percentile. So I will humbly disagree with Rice, MIT, et al. I would also point out that by the law of large numbers, as used in the MIT lecture, empirical and percentile should converge to the same number. To my taste, percentile bootstrap is intuitive, justified, and what the inventor of bootstrap had in mind. I would add that I took the time to do this just for my own edification, not anything else. In particular, I didn’t write Efron, which probably is what OP should do. I am most willing to stand corrected.

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amoeba
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I'm following your guideline -: "Looking for an answer drawing from credible and/or official sources." . The

The bootstrap was invented by Brad Efron. I think it's fair to say that he's a distinguished statistician. It is a fact that he is a professor at Stanford. I think that makes his opinions credible and official.
I

I believe that "Computer Age Statistical Inference"Computer Age Statistical Inference by Efron and Hastie is his latest book and so should reflect his current views. From p.204 204 (11.7, notes and details) - "Bootstrap confidence intervals are neither exact nor optimal , but aim instead for a wide applicability combined with near-exact accuracy."

Bootstrap confidence intervals are neither exact nor optimal , but aim instead for a wide applicability combined with near-exact accuracy.

If you read Chapter 11, "Bootstrap Confidence Intervals", he gives 4 methods of creating bootstrap confidence intervals. The second of these methods is (11.2) The Percentile Method. The third and the fourth methods are variants on the percentile method that attempt to correct for what Efron and Hastie describe as a bias in the confidence interval and for which they give a theoretical explanation.
As

As an aside, I can't decide if there is any difference between what the MIT people call empirical bootstrap CI and percentile CI. I may be having a brain fart, but I see the empirical method as the percentile method after subtracting off a fixed quantity. That should change nothing. I'm probably mis-reading, but I'd be truly grateful if someone can explain how I am mis-understanding their text.
Regardless

Regardless, the leading authority doesn't seem to have an issue with percentile CI's. I also think his comment answers criticisms of bootstrap CI that are mentioned by some people.

I'm following your guideline - "Looking for an answer drawing from credible and/or official sources." . The bootstrap was invented by Brad Efron. I think it's fair to say that he's a distinguished statistician. It is a fact that he is a professor at Stanford. I think that makes his opinions credible and official.
I believe that "Computer Age Statistical Inference" by Efron and Hastie is his latest book and so should reflect his current views. From p.204 (11.7, notes and details) - "Bootstrap confidence intervals are neither exact nor optimal , but aim instead for a wide applicability combined with near-exact accuracy." If you read Chapter 11, "Bootstrap Confidence Intervals", he gives 4 methods of creating bootstrap confidence intervals. The second of these methods is (11.2) The Percentile Method. The third and the fourth methods are variants on the percentile method that attempt to correct for what Efron and Hastie describe as a bias in the confidence interval and for which they give a theoretical explanation.
As an aside, I can't decide if there is any difference between what the MIT people call empirical bootstrap CI and percentile CI. I may be having a brain fart, but I see the empirical method as the percentile method after subtracting off a fixed quantity. That should change nothing. I'm probably mis-reading, but I'd be truly grateful if someone can explain how I am mis-understanding their text.
Regardless, the leading authority doesn't seem to have an issue with percentile CI's. I also think his comment answers criticisms of bootstrap CI that are mentioned by some people.

I'm following your guideline: "Looking for an answer drawing from credible and/or official sources."

The bootstrap was invented by Brad Efron. I think it's fair to say that he's a distinguished statistician. It is a fact that he is a professor at Stanford. I think that makes his opinions credible and official.

I believe that Computer Age Statistical Inference by Efron and Hastie is his latest book and so should reflect his current views. From p. 204 (11.7, notes and details),

Bootstrap confidence intervals are neither exact nor optimal , but aim instead for a wide applicability combined with near-exact accuracy.

If you read Chapter 11, "Bootstrap Confidence Intervals", he gives 4 methods of creating bootstrap confidence intervals. The second of these methods is (11.2) The Percentile Method. The third and the fourth methods are variants on the percentile method that attempt to correct for what Efron and Hastie describe as a bias in the confidence interval and for which they give a theoretical explanation.

As an aside, I can't decide if there is any difference between what the MIT people call empirical bootstrap CI and percentile CI. I may be having a brain fart, but I see the empirical method as the percentile method after subtracting off a fixed quantity. That should change nothing. I'm probably mis-reading, but I'd be truly grateful if someone can explain how I am mis-understanding their text.

Regardless, the leading authority doesn't seem to have an issue with percentile CI's. I also think his comment answers criticisms of bootstrap CI that are mentioned by some people.

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meh
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