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Aug 11, 2018 at 20:48 vote accept Snoopy
Aug 11, 2018 at 14:05 comment added Snoopy Meanwhile, perhaps we should add that cov(z, y | x) = 0 also implies that z does not affect y through u.
Aug 11, 2018 at 13:23 comment added Snoopy Thanks for this very good answer. So $cov(y,z|x) = 0$ means that z does not affect y conditional on x. This then implies that $cov(y,z) \neq 0$ because z can affect x and x can affect y.
Aug 11, 2018 at 12:40 review First posts
Aug 11, 2018 at 12:51
Aug 11, 2018 at 12:35 history answered Emily Riederer CC BY-SA 4.0