# Timeline for A confusion about Bayes's theorem

### Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0

6 events
when toggle format what by license comment
Nov 4 '18 at 10:40 history edited Tim
Nov 4 '18 at 10:38 comment @MiloMinderbinder as I said in my answer and others said in the comments, they are basically the same and there's no reason for using proportionality symbol. The only difference is in interpreting $\theta$, but I can't see how using proportionality symbol would have anything to do with this. If you want to know authors intentions, email them.