Timeline for A confusion about Bayes's theorem

Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0

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Nov 4 '18 at 10:40 history edited Tim CC BY-SA 4.0
added 4 characters in body
Nov 4 '18 at 10:38 comment added Tim @MiloMinderbinder as I said in my answer and others said in the comments, they are basically the same and there's no reason for using proportionality symbol. The only difference is in interpreting $\theta$, but I can't see how using proportionality symbol would have anything to do with this. If you want to know authors intentions, email them.
Nov 4 '18 at 10:17 comment added MiloMinderbinder Please see the edit i made. I understand the points you raise in your answer. I just dont know why is it written that evidence in the equation is proportional to individual probabilities multiplied together and not equal to it?
Nov 2 '18 at 15:43 comment added Matthew Gunn Yeah, ignoring normalizing constants because they aren't computationally necessary comes up in both Bayesian and frequentist contexts and is a somewhat orthogonal issue to the whole Bayesian and frequentist distinction.
Nov 2 '18 at 15:33 history edited Matthew Gunn CC BY-SA 4.0
Slight language edit: I added "treat \theta" to make the distinction more explicit.
Nov 2 '18 at 15:23 history answered Tim CC BY-SA 4.0