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Apr 26, 2023 at 2:25 comment added THN @K_Augus They are equivalent when L1 is the cross-entropy loss for binary classification. It can be shown by splitting the positive and negative data. You can read the appendix of this paper (arxiv.org/abs/1903.11406) for a reference.
Apr 23, 2023 at 19:08 comment added K_Augus Could you explain a little more about why L3 is equivalient to L1
Nov 8, 2018 at 8:13 vote accept THN
Nov 8, 2018 at 5:50 history answered THN CC BY-SA 4.0