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Feb 24, 2019 at 11:16 comment added gunes Yes, and it also applies the fact that normal RVs are still normal under linear transformation. Other RVs may not satisfy this property. For example, if $X$ is Bernoulli, $2X$ is not Bernoulli.
Feb 24, 2019 at 11:13 comment added user11128 Basically just applying Var(cX) = c^2 Var(X)?
Feb 24, 2019 at 11:10 comment added gunes This doesn't show $\bar{X_n}=\frac{1}{\sqrt{n}}Z$, but I tried to answer your title question. For this one, in the notes, $\bar{X_n}$ is defined that way via $\overset{d}=$ operator. So, it's basically saying that if $\bar{X_n}$ is Normal with $(0,1/n)$, then a standard normal RV can be defined such that $\bar{X_n}=\frac{1}{\sqrt{n}}Z$.
Feb 24, 2019 at 10:53 comment added user11128 Thanks. I follow your result that the x pdf can be written in terms of $\phi(x)^n$ but how does this show $\bqr{X}_n = n^{-1/2} Z$? See second to last line of page 1 in these notes for the claim: www.stat.cmu.edu/~larry/=stat705/Lecture2.pdf
Feb 24, 2019 at 9:48 history answered gunes CC BY-SA 4.0