Timeline for Why is the posterior distribution the same as likelihood function when uniform prior distribution is used in Bayesian Analysis?
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|Sep 2 '20 at 14:57||comment||added||StoryMay||Does "Nudging" mean "affecting the posterior"?|
|Aug 17 '20 at 16:58||comment||added||duckmayr||Although I like the simple intuitive nature of this answer (hence the :+1:), I would warn that without caution this idea is dangerous; the prior does not nudge the posterior away from the likelihood, the likelihood nudges the posterior away from the prior (since the prior comes before your observed data, it must be the thing that is being nudged). I say dangerous because it can fuel misinformed critiques of Bayesian inference and/by leading to a fundamental misunderstanding of the project of Bayesian inference in the manner hinted in my last sentence.|
|Aug 17 '20 at 9:09||history||answered||dariober||CC BY-SA 4.0|