No.
Consider fourthree boolean variables: A, B, X, Y, where X and YA are i.i.d. Bernoulli with probabilty 0.5, while A = X and B = X $\oplus$ YA (that is, B is equal to the xor of X and YA).
It's easy to show that A and B areis also Bernoulli distributed with probabilty 0.5, and theyA and B are mutually independent, though obviously they aren't conditionally independent given X and Y.