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Mar 19, 2021 at 18:18 answer added Pedro Cunha timeline score: 1
Mar 19, 2021 at 18:17 comment added John L Yes that is correct.
Mar 19, 2021 at 17:47 comment added Pedro Cunha Yes, indeed. I was able to see that. The correct calculation should be $1 - 0,5^{20} \cdot \left[ \binom{20}{0} + \binom{20}{1} + \binom{20}{2} + \binom{20}{3} + \binom{20}{4} \right] \approx 0,99409$, is that right? Thanks!
Mar 19, 2021 at 17:43 comment added John L The simulation is correct and your calculation is not. If you have learned about the binomial distribution, try thinking about it that way. Each one has a 50% chance of being greater than 2. It's like flipping 20 coins and finding the probability that you see at least 5 heads out of the 20.
Mar 19, 2021 at 17:04 history asked Pedro Cunha CC BY-SA 4.0