Skip to main content
9 events
when toggle format what by license comment
S Jun 10, 2021 at 8:04 history bounty ended CommunityBot
S Jun 10, 2021 at 8:04 history notice removed CommunityBot
Jun 2, 2021 at 23:38 answer added Lucas Prates timeline score: 1
S Jun 2, 2021 at 6:16 history bounty started Olórin
S Jun 2, 2021 at 6:16 history notice added Olórin Draw attention
May 25, 2021 at 18:55 history edited Olórin CC BY-SA 4.0
added 1 character in body
May 25, 2021 at 2:23 comment added microhaus On that basis, my instinct would be that there is no dilemma at all. The intuitive reason why I hold that belief is that "squishing the data" together more closely via normalisation will result in the distance of the closest point to the optimal decision boundary, i.e. the margin $\gamma$, also reducing by exactly the same factor. Meaning that no relative distances are altered - you've just 'zoomed outwards'. However, a full answer to substantiate those intuitive reasons would require a formal derivation.
May 25, 2021 at 1:51 comment added microhaus 1. In my view, the 'dilemma' only follows if you grant that the net effect of normalisation is for the bound $R^2 / \gamma^2$ to increase. 2. For this net increase in the bound to occur, it would have to be the case that normalisation would entail a reduction in the margin $\gamma$ that is greater than the reduction in the bound on the Euclidean norm of the data $R$. 3. To me, it is unclear why point 2 would be the case, rather than for the bound $R^2 / \gamma^2$ to be unchanged from normalisation because the reduction in $R$ is exactly equal to a reduction in the margin $\gamma$.
May 24, 2021 at 23:45 history asked Olórin CC BY-SA 4.0