Timeline for Are all statistical models also causal models?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
15 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| S Dec 11, 2021 at 14:50 | history | suggested | mribeirodantas | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
The author mistyped Z instead of X. Now it's correct.
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| Dec 11, 2021 at 11:08 | answer | added | mribeirodantas | timeline score: 1 | |
| Dec 11, 2021 at 11:03 | review | Suggested edits | |||
| S Dec 11, 2021 at 14:50 | |||||
| Nov 22, 2021 at 13:59 | answer | added | markowitz | timeline score: 0 | |
| Nov 19, 2021 at 15:40 | history | edited | Brandon Brown | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
added 346 characters in body
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| Nov 19, 2021 at 14:09 | comment | added | whuber♦ | In the model "$Y=aX+cZ+e$" there is no concept of "manipulating" the values of the explanatory variable, not even an implied one. To suppose there is such a meaning would be tantamount to asserting association is equivalent to causation. | |
| Nov 19, 2021 at 13:26 | comment | added | Pere | You may be interested in Econometrics. In Econometrics statistical models are built in a way that reflect causal relations. That starts on how data are collected. | |
| Nov 19, 2021 at 12:00 | history | tweeted | twitter.com/StackStats/status/1461665582890246158 | ||
| Nov 19, 2021 at 9:48 | history | became hot network question | |||
| Nov 19, 2021 at 8:49 | answer | added | Sextus Empiricus | timeline score: 6 | |
| Nov 19, 2021 at 4:20 | comment | added | Alexis | I very much agree with the close of your comment. | |
| Nov 19, 2021 at 3:10 | comment | added | Brandon Brown | Right- I get that, there are issues of identifiability. But my question is that there doesn’t seem to be a mathematical difference between a causal model and a statistical model- it’s just a matter of which one you assume to actually represent the world. It seems like we start with an assumed model that we think represents the real world, the causal model, and then we see if we can derive another model from it using only observable variables that is in some way in bijection with the assumed causal model. And sometimes it may not be possible to identify that bijective model. | |
| Nov 19, 2021 at 2:40 | comment | added | Alexis | Nope. It is pretty easy to find real-world examples where no set of models on any arrangement of observed variables give unbiased causal estimates. | |
| Nov 19, 2021 at 1:27 | history | edited | Brandon Brown | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
added 116 characters in body
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| Nov 19, 2021 at 1:16 | history | asked | Brandon Brown | CC BY-SA 4.0 |