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Mar 16, 2022 at 14:58 comment added Tim @damianodamiano you can always approximate, it is just a question of how bad you want the approximation to be. You could assume that $X_1', X_2''$ are i.i.d. and distributed as $X_1$, but then you are getting the probability distribution and the variability of the result pretty wrong.
Mar 16, 2022 at 13:39 comment added damianodamiano Since it is not possible, is there a way to approximate the required behaviour?
Mar 16, 2022 at 13:37 vote accept damianodamiano
Mar 16, 2022 at 13:23 history answered Tim CC BY-SA 4.0