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Feb 20 at 2:38 comment added Shawn Hemelstrand I also don't understand this distinction and don't believe it to be accurate. I have seen splines used for main effects for many people who are experts in this area. Furthermore, I don't think this answer actually elucidates the core question asked by OP. The answer so far more shows how one can program the spline without a clear description of what is going on under the hood, which is likely what OP was asking for.
Feb 16 at 14:47 comment added rolando2 @Roland I've never heard that distinction made before (not that I am so knowledgeable about splines). I am curious why you make it. I would think that what's good for estimating a main effect of interest would be good for estimating a confounder's effect and vice versa.
Feb 16 at 6:36 comment added Roland @rolando2 I'm not sure what you want me to elaborate. I might use a spline to account for the nonlinear effect of a nuisance variable. I wouldn't use a spline for the main effect of interest.
Feb 13 at 16:07 comment added rolando2 @Roland Could you elaborate on "not that interested in the coefficients"?
Feb 13 at 13:54 comment added denis ok, but still it does not answer my question: Why and how this transformation produce the same prediction as my understandable piecewise regression ? What is the rationale of this tranform ? Where does it come from ? How can I reverse it to the slope of each first degree polynomial ?
Feb 13 at 8:12 comment added Roland Generally, when you use splines, you are not that interested in the coefficients ...
Feb 13 at 7:39 comment added denis thank you for the transformation. But I do not understand the rational of this, nor how to interpret the coefficients when you use such transformation in a regression
Feb 9 at 10:10 history answered Roland CC BY-SA 4.0