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Oct 29, 2015 at 0:53 vote accept CommunityBot
Jan 17, 2014 at 0:19 comment added Alecos Papadopoulos Formally yes, but for the case $Y=X$ it is equal to unity.
Jan 17, 2014 at 0:16 comment added user30490 Last question, since Y is a transformation of X do we need a Jacobian term?
Jan 17, 2014 at 0:10 comment added user30490 Sorry, I read the notation incorrectly $B(y,z;\rho)$
Jan 17, 2014 at 0:08 comment added Alecos Papadopoulos I do not state that $(Y,Z)$ are jointly bivariate Normal - I assume that $(X,Z)$ are jointly bivariate normal. The cdf of $(Y,Z)$ is the last expression, which is not a bivariate normal, viewed as a whole.
Jan 17, 2014 at 0:08 comment added whuber I do not see any such claim in this answer: the bivariate normal distribution is applied to $X$ and $Z$, not to $Y$ and $Z$. Although I have not checked it over in detail, it definitely is the right approach (and therefore received my upvote).
Jan 17, 2014 at 0:04 comment added user30490 Also, are (Y,Z) jointly bivariate Normal as he states above?
Jan 17, 2014 at 0:03 comment added user30490 @Whuber, is his solution correct?
Jan 16, 2014 at 23:59 comment added whuber Do you need to do anything? Alecos has given you an explicit solution in terms of standard mathematical objects; that's a reasonable interpretation of "closed form" and it allows for simple calculation of the probability of any event.
Jan 16, 2014 at 23:46 comment added user30490 What should I do @Whuber?
Jan 16, 2014 at 23:44 comment added whuber Strictly speaking, this CDF doesn't have a density because it is singular along a line $Y=0$.
Jan 16, 2014 at 23:31 history answered Alecos Papadopoulos CC BY-SA 3.0