I have an exercise with an answer which I don't completely understand:
Here's the exercise: Suppose $p$ is the transition (stochastic) matrix defined by $$p= \begin{pmatrix} 1-\alpha & \alpha \\ \beta & 1- \beta \\ \end{pmatrix}$$
What I need to find is $\Bbb P(X_n=1 | X_0=1)$.
So here's the solution:
Noting that $p^{n+1}=p^np$ this gives:
$$p^{n+1}_{11}= p^{n}_{12}\beta + p^n_{11}(1-\alpha)$$
and since p is a stochastic matrix $$p^n_{11}+p^n_{12}=1$$ for all $n$.
Then we suub the second into the first and solve for $p^n_{11}$ $\Rightarrow$ $$p^{n+1}_{11}=(1-\alpha-\beta)p^n_{11}+\beta$$
So for some reason they also write that $p^0_{11}=1.$
So then the solution is :
$$p^n_{11}= \begin{cases} \frac{\alpha}{\alpha+\beta} + \frac{\alpha}{\alpha+\beta}(1-\alpha-\beta)^n , & \text{for }\alpha+\beta \gt 0\\ 1, & \text{for } \alpha+\beta=0. \end{cases}$$
So how did they deduce the solution?
Is this even a correct solution?