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I've seen in video lessons that if the sample size is big enough (n>30) sample distribution standard deviation can be approximated by sample standard deviation. How do we get the sample distribution standard deviation if sample size is small (n=10)?

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  • $\begingroup$ Where in the video does the thing you're discussing occur? $\endgroup$
    – Glen_b
    Commented Aug 3, 2014 at 6:24
  • $\begingroup$ @Glen_b at 10:20 $\endgroup$
    – moriesta
    Commented Aug 4, 2014 at 19:23
  • $\begingroup$ Thanks. Looks like he's really saying what you say he's saying in your question, and my discussion applies - as a general statement I think there's no good basis for it, though in specific circumstances it may be adequate. $\endgroup$
    – Glen_b
    Commented Aug 4, 2014 at 21:28

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I'll first respond to the question, and then talk about the information you're basing your question on, some of which I regard as potentially misguided.

1) If we assume that the sample values are independently drawn from the same normal distribution, we can compute the distribution of the variance, and from that compute the distribution of the standard deviation.

As it turns out for the normal case, the sample variance is the population variance ($\sigma^2$) times a chi-squared random variable divided by its degrees of freedom (one less than the sample size). From there, the distribution of the standard deviation is a scaled chi-distribution.

enter image description here

The green curve shows the distribution shape when dealing with the standard deviation of two observations. The blue curve is for 5 observations. The red curve 11 observations, and the purple curve is for 41. As you see, even at n=41 it can still fairly easily be below 0.8 or above 1.2 times $\sigma$ (roughly 7% chance of one or the other happening).

However, if you're using that standard deviation in say a test of means, then it's the distribution of your test statistic (e.g. $\frac{\bar{x}-\mu_0}{s/\sqrt{n}}$) that you have to worry about. For some intuition on that, you may want to look at this recent answer.

2) I'd regard any advice that 30 is large enough to consider that the sample standard deviation has converged to the population standard deviation (at least without some strong conditions) as nonsensical. Sometimes, that may be reasonable, but in other circumstances, I wouldn't think it's even close, and the advice has the potential to lead to some badly mistaken actions.

Even if we're dealing with normal data, for a t-statistic with 29 df, a statistic of 3 have a p-value of 0.55% (and, for example, if you're doing multiple comparisons, you might well be using a significance level below 0.5%), but if you treat it as if the standard deviation was known, you'd get a p-value less than half what it should be.

With normal data in some circumstances I'd look for eighty - or in other situations, perhaps even hundreds of observations - before I'd be content to treat the sample standard deviation like it was the population standard deviation.

If we're not dealing with normal data, it might have to be much, much more -- or in some cases you might never get there.

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  • $\begingroup$ I think the question was badly formulated (I've edited it and included the link to the video which is a short one from Khan Academy) since I meant sampling distribution of means. $\endgroup$
    – moriesta
    Commented Aug 3, 2014 at 2:36
  • $\begingroup$ Your original question made sense to me and had an answer. I'm not sure it's reasonable to so radically alter an answerable question which already has an answer. This is further compounded by the problem that your new question doesn't seem to make sense; as such I can't even try to alter it to keep up with the trajectory of your question. So I now have an answer I've spent a great deal of time on ... which no longer responds to any question. What am I to do with it? $\endgroup$
    – Glen_b
    Commented Aug 3, 2014 at 2:53
  • $\begingroup$ Right, returned back the original question. $\endgroup$
    – moriesta
    Commented Aug 3, 2014 at 3:10

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