In the standard GARCH(1,1) model with normal innovations
$\sigma^2_t=\omega+\alpha\epsilon^2_{t-1}+\beta\sigma^2_{t-1} $
the likelihood of $m$ observations occurring in the order in which they are observed is
$\sum_{t=1}^m\left[-\ln(\sigma^2_{t})-{\left(\frac{\epsilon^2_{t}}{\sigma^2_{t}}\right)}\right] $
This expression, with the usual caveats of optimization, allows us to obtain the MLE estimates of the GARCH(1,1) parameters.
However, in the GJR-GARCH(1,1) model by Glosten et al. (1993), the conditional variance is
$ \sigma^2_t=\omega+(\alpha+\gamma I_{t-1})\epsilon^2_{t-1}+\beta\sigma^2_{t-1} $
where $ I_{t-1} $ is the indicator function:
$I_{t-1}(\epsilon_{t-1})=1 $ when $\epsilon_{t-1}<0$ and
$I_{t-1}(\epsilon_{t-1})=0$ otherwise.
Question: Is there a closed-form expression for the likelihood function in the GJR-GARCH(1,1) with normal innovations?
EDIT: Per comments, the likelihood function in the GJR-GARCH(1,1) model is the same than in the standard GARCH(1,1):
- Can someone provide a reference/explanation to justify this?
- If we use empirical innovations instead of normal ones (e.g: a Filtered Historical Simulation/FHS approach), would this change the functional form of the likelihood function? (my guess is that empirical innovations does not affect the likelihood function, but any reference or explanation will be highly welcome)