I've been trying to use a Kalman filter to estimate slope of a line (this is a simplified version of my problem for discussion). So basically time-varying regression.
State Equation: $$ \left[\begin{matrix} a_t \\ x_t \\ n_t \\ \end{matrix}\right] = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0 & 0 \\ 1 & 1 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & 0.9 \\ \end{bmatrix}\begin{bmatrix} a_{t-1} \\ x_{t-1} \\ n_{t-1} \\ \end{bmatrix} + \begin{bmatrix} \sigma_a \\ 0 \\ \sigma_n \\ \end{bmatrix}$$
Measurement Equation: $$ z_t = \begin{bmatrix} 0 & 1 & 1 \end{bmatrix}\begin{bmatrix} a_{t} \\ x_{t} \\ n_{t} \\ \end{bmatrix}$$
Now -- when I generate the data for simulation, I'm using three piece wise continuous straight lines for the signal with added AR1 noise of "driving" variance $\sigma_n^2$, as can be seen from the above equations. I use the same exact AR1 "noise" model in my Kalman filter equation for $n_t$. However, to compare, I also tried a model where the AR1 noise part was eliminated from the state equation and I just used an added term in the measurement equation for noise that had a variance of the simulated AR1 noise (so basically this just assumes a Gaussian white noise instead of AR1).
The results were virtually identical when observed the estimated slope...with the Gaussian noise assumption maybe even being a bit smoother (when I use the AR1 noise model in my state equations, there is a small high frequency component to the estimated slope). Note that in both cases, the driving noise for the slope $\sigma_a$ was optimized for min MSE of the line estimate. Plots for estimate with AR1 noise model used shown, with Gaussian noise assumption producing virtually identical plots and MSE:
So my question: does it really even matter if I accurately model the noise? I was expecting (or hoping) I'd get a better/smoother estimate of the slope when I modeled the noise exactly, but this is not the case. Is there something fundamental that someone can explain that I'm missing?