If a variable is normally expressed relative to body weight and then I want to include that variable in a regression model that also includes body weight among other variables as covariates, do I have do "un-normalize" that variable to include it in the regression model?
For example, our laboratory studies different metabolic markers in human subjects and we frequently express metabolic variables normalized to total body weight. This is because many of these variables are greatly dependent on the total body weight of an individual.
One variable in particular might be how much glucose is released by the liver during periods of fasting, which is typically expressed as mg of glucose per kg of body weight per minute (mg/kg/min). However, if we are interested in how this particular variables changes over time with other dependent variables (including body weight) in a regression model, then must the mg of glucose per min (mg/min) be used instead of the body weight adjusted (mg/kg/min)?
It seems incorrect to try and adjust for a variable that is already adjusted for in a regression model. The reason I ask is that this issue comes up in our scientific literature and I'm trying to figure out what spurious results or conclusions would this practice lead to?
I appreciate the community's insight into this question!