I'm looking for a detailed formulation of the Poisson Regression with time offset.
In the Wikipedia, it is written:
$$\log(\mathbb{E}[Y\mid x]) = \log(exposure) + \beta'x$$
with $Y$ following a Poisson distribution:
$$p(Y = y\mid x;\beta) = \frac{\lambda^y}{y!}e^{-\lambda} $$
This formulation is not clear for me:
- What exactly is the response variable?
- The Poisson distribution with a parameter $\lambda$ expresses the probability of a given number of events occurring in a fixed interval of time and/or space if these events occur with a known average rate and independently of the time since the last event.
So incorporating time in our regression model, the Poisson distribution should be expressed as below:
$$p(Y=y\mid x,t,\beta) = \frac{(\lambda t)^y}{y!}e^{-\lambda t} $$
with:
- mean: $\mathbb{E}[Y \mid x,t,\beta] = \lambda t$;
- variance: $\text{Var}[Y \mid x,t,\beta] = \lambda t$.
And the Poisson Regression model (with the $\log$ link function) is expressed as:
$$\log(\mathbb{E}[Y_i \mid T_i,X_i) = \log(\lambda_i T_i)=\log(T_i) + \beta'X_i$$
In which $\lambda_1 t_1 = y_1$, $\lambda_2 t_2 = y_2$, $\dotsc$ where $y_1,y_2,\dotsc$ are the count events. Is this true?
And here comes another confusion: in $\lambda t$ we already incorporate time element, why do we add an offset term $\log(T_i)$?