I have a $2 \times 2$ contingency table I would like to analyze through logistic regression AND the Fisher's Exact Test. The table tells us how many people responded to treatment vs control for headaches.
Headache No Headache
Asprin 55 42
Control 67 34
The logical way to interpret the relation is that Headache vs. No Headache is the dependent variable while Asprin vs. Control is the independent predictor variable.
However, I am wondering if there is a difference for Headache being in the columns vs it being in the rows. In other words, would there be any difference in having:
Headache No Headache
Asprin 55 42
Control 67 34
VERSUS
Asprin Control
Headache 55 67
No Headache 42 34
?
Obviously the log odds ratio will be different but is there a convention to be followed? Additionally, for the Fisher's Exact Test, which assumes fixed columns and rows, does it apply here as well?