This is a simple question.
Suppose $V_1$ and $V_2$ are distributed independently and uniformly on the unit interval. I want to find the expected difference $V_2 - V_1$ conditional on $V_2 > V_1$.
I know the answer is $\int_0^1\int_0^{v_2}2(v_2-v_1)dv_1dv_2 = 1/3$. I have also verified it by computation. Why is there a "2" in the integrand? I understand that conditioning on the difference being positive changes the bounds of integration, and obviously understand that $f_1 = f_2 = 1$, but I am confused about the 2.