In a recent exam, we were asked to justify the use of the $\chi^2(1)$ distribution in performing the Wald or Rao's score test. There was only 1 mark for this (approx. 2.5 mins worth of time). My answer was
The Wald and score test statistics are based on various approximations to the log-likelihood ratio, which are valid and equivalent in large samples when $H_0$ is true. For example, the approximation for the 2nd Wald statistic is
$$ 2\log(LR)\simeq (\hat{\theta}_n-\theta_0)^2E\{-\ell''(\theta)\}|_{\theta_0} =(\hat{\theta}_n-\theta_0)^2I(\theta_0) $$
where $I(\theta_0)$ is the Fisher information at $\theta_0$. Then, using asymptotic normality,
$$\hat{\theta}_n\approx N \left ( \theta_0,\frac{1}{ni(\theta_0)}\right )=N \left ( \theta_0,\frac{1}{I(\theta_0)}\right )$$
which yields $(\hat{\theta}_n-\theta_0)\sqrt{I(\theta_0)} \approx N(0,1)$
Since $2\log(LR)$ is approximately equal to the square of the LHS of this when $n$ is large, it is approximately distributed as the square of a standard normal random variable, that is, as $\chi^2(1)$
The marker wrote "insufficient" and I got zero for this. As it is a summative exam, they won't give any feedback, nor engage in any discussion about it. I was wondering if anyone here can explain what I have missed or where I went wrong. I'm not very good with latex so I hope I didn't make any mistakes in the typing !
This is for an elective module in statistical theory in the final year of an undergraduate maths degree. Thanks !
Edit: There is a formal procedure to have my script remarked, but for the sake of 1 mark, and since I passed quite comfortably, I don't really want to rock the boat.