Collective wisdom is desperately needed! I need to understand if some kind of significance testing is applicable here, and if that is the case - which test.
The data collection was devised as follows: There are 3 stations where people perform a number of station-specific manual tasks.
On each of three test days different people were assigned to stations (9 people in total). people were of different height, age and weight.
Each person (at each station on each day) was subjected to 5000 measurements of his kinetic activity, later classified as "good" or "bad". The percentages of "good" and "bad" for each person (and day and station) are thus known.
3 people from day one are treated as a "control group", or baseline.
I would like to know if a significance test is possible for percentages @ station[x] and day one (and baseline person working at that station on day one) and percentages @ same station for a different day/person.
stations day1 day2 day3
1 74.03% (john) 74.83% (jill) 75.44% (jorge)
2 45.83% (baz) 80.24% (basil) 76.45% (beata)
3 65.82% (ted) 72.55% (tessa) 72.73% (Tom)
percentages are proportions of "good" movements @ corresponding day and station. people working stations on day 1 weren't assisted by anything, people working stations on day 2 were given instructions, people working on day 3 were given visual aids.
Question: did the "ergonomic interference" influence proportion of "good" movements?
Null hypothesis is (I am guessing) "the difference can be attributed to natural variation in humans only" I want to test the significance of "had ergonomic instructions".
Can it be done with such a setup and which formula? Or is it a faulty experiment design and such testing is impossible?
Please help. I am no statistician and I am at my wits' end.