Let $X_1 , X_2 , ... , X_n$ be a random sample from a distribution with probability density function $\frac{1}{\theta}x^{\frac{1- \theta}{\theta}}I_{[0,1]}, \theta>0$. I want to find the 100$\alpha \% $ confidence interval for $\theta$.
This is what I have done:
$F_X(x;\theta) = x^{\frac{1}{\theta}}I_{[0,1]} + I_{(1, \infty)}$
We can pick $0<q_1, q_2<1$ such that $P(q_1 < \prod_{i=1}^{n}F_{x}(X_i ; \theta) < q_2) = \alpha$
Now we have that
$P(q_1 < \prod_{i=1}^{n}F_{x}(X_i ; \theta) < q_2) = P(q_1 < \prod_{i=1}^{n}X_i^{\frac{1}{\theta}} < q_2) = P(log(q_1) < \frac{1}{\theta}log(\prod_{i=1}^{n}X_i) < log(q_2)) = P(\frac{log(\prod_{i=1}^{n}X_i)}{log(q_1)} < \theta < \frac{log(\prod_{i=1}^{n}X_i)}{log(q_2)})$
Therefore a confidence interval for $\theta$ is $[\frac{log(\prod_{i=1}^{n}X_i)}{log(q_1)},\frac{log(\prod_{i=1}^{n}X_i)}{log(q_2)}]$. I believe this is correct. What I find unusual is, the expected length of the confidence interval seems to tend to infinity as n tends to infinity, I find this very counterintuitive, can this really be correct:
The length of the interval is $log(\prod_{i=1}^{n}X_i)(\frac{1}{log(q_2)} - \frac{1}{log(q_1)})$, this has expected value $nE(log(X_1))(\frac{1}{log(q_2)} - \frac{1}{log(q_1)}) = -n\theta(\frac{1}{log(q_2)} - \frac{1}{log(q_1)})$ (because $E(log(X_1)) = \int_{0}^{1} \frac{1}{\theta}log(x)x^{\frac{1}{\theta} - 1} dx = -\theta$). We can see that as n tends to $\infty$ so does the length of the confidence interval.
Can this be correct?