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I have created a standard OLS regression model to estimate the House Price and one group of variables describe the age group percentage of population in a particular neighborhood (ranging 0 to 100).

These variables are the percentage of the population in a particular neighborhood, belonging to an age group. For example Neighborhood Age 0-14 value of 23 would mean that there is 23% of people in a neighborhood, who are between 0-14 years old. The variables are presented below:

  • Neighborhood Age 0-14 %
  • Neighborhood Age 15-24 %
  • Neighborhood Age 25-44 %
  • Neighborhood Age 44-64 %
  • Neighborhood Age >64 %

Now I know that since these are percentage values, I have to remove at least one of them due to perfect linear dependence, for example: Neighborhood Age 0-14 % = 1 - SUM(All of the other age %)

I have removed the Neighborhood Age >64 % variable and estimated the coefficients. The estimated coefficients for each variable are this (House price has been log-transformed so interpretation is ${\Delta}P\% = {\beta}_{i} * {\Delta}X_i\%$):

  • Intercept: 11.1917
  • Neighborhood Age 0-14 %: 0.0229
  • Neighborhood Age 15-24 %: 0.0121
  • Neighborhood Age 25-44 %: 0.0002
  • Neighborhood Age 44-64 %: 0.008

As I removed one of the variables, how would I now interpret the Neighborhood Age >64 % effect on House Price? Note that these are continuous variables ranging 0-100.

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  • $\begingroup$ It looks like you did not report the full results: what happened to the intercept? $\endgroup$
    – whuber
    Commented May 20, 2019 at 15:38
  • $\begingroup$ My bad, edited the original question. There were a lot of variables and I tried to keep the confusion to a minimum. $\endgroup$ Commented May 20, 2019 at 16:18
  • $\begingroup$ Thank you--that clarifies your question. You might be able to find the answer yourself by comparing these estimates to the original set of estimates. In particular (depending on how your software codes these categorical variables), the intercept should equal the original estimate for the >64% category. $\endgroup$
    – whuber
    Commented May 20, 2019 at 16:23
  • $\begingroup$ Thank you for your answer - I understand the interpretation regarding the categorical variables, but these are continuous variables, ranging 0 - 100. Is the interpretation similar to one with categorical variables? $\endgroup$ Commented May 20, 2019 at 16:26
  • $\begingroup$ Could you please be more specific about how you have created these variables? Your question currently reads as if they are categories of percentages rather than the percentages themselves. $\endgroup$
    – whuber
    Commented May 20, 2019 at 16:31

1 Answer 1

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The the house price of having lets say: Neighborhood Age 44-64% is 0.008 more than having Neighborhood Age >64%. Take note, that when adding dummy variables in a linear model:

$y = \beta_0 + \beta_1X_1 + \beta_2X_2 + \beta_3D $ where $D$ is a dummy variable, can be re-written into :

$y = \beta_0 + \beta_1X_1 + \beta_2X_2 + \beta_3 $ when D = 1

$y = \beta_0 + \beta_1X_1 + \beta_2X_2 $ when D = 0

So the difference in y in the model with and without the categorical predictor is simply just $\beta_3$ which is estimated.

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    $\begingroup$ Thank you for the answer! The problem I'm having is that these are continuous variables, therefore D in your example would range from 0 to 100. Is the interpretation similar in that case? $\endgroup$ Commented May 20, 2019 at 15:12

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