The intuitive formula is not generally correct. I will put off presenting a counterexample until we have performed enough analysis to find a simple one.
Notice
$$\frac{\sum_i X_i W_i}{\sum_j W_j} = \sum_i X_i \left(\frac{W_i}{\sum_j W_j}\right).$$
Write $S_W = \sum W_i$ for the sum of the weights. Linearity of expectation and independence of $X_i$ from the $W_j$ imply
$$E\left[\frac{\sum_i X_i W_i}{\sum_j W_j}\right] = \sum_i E\left[X_i \left(\frac{W_i}{S_W}\right)\right] = \sum_i E[X_i]E\left[\frac{W_i}{S_W}\right].$$
That is as far as you can generally take it.
However, often weights sum to unity: that will make $S_W$ disappear from the final expression. Moreover, in many cases the $W_i$ are identically distributed. No matter whether $S_W$ is constant or not, for any $i$ we find
$$1 = E[1] = E\left[\frac{W_1+W_2+\cdots+W_n}{W_1+W_2+\cdots+W_n}\right] = E\left[\frac{W_1}{S_W} + \frac{W_2}{S_W} + \cdots + \frac{W_n}{S_W}\right] = n E\left[\frac{W_i}{S_W}\right],$$
showing that
$$E\left[\frac{W_i}{S_W}\right] = \frac{1}{n},\ i = 1,2,\ldots, n.$$
In effect, when the weights are identically distributed, then whether they are independent or not, the expectation of the weighted mean of the $X_i$ is the mean of the expectations of the $X_i$ (provided only that the $X_i$ are independent of the $W_j$).
Another special case occurs when the $X_i$ have a common mean, say $\mu$ (which occurs when the $X_i$ are iid). Now the expectation formula reduces to
$$\sum_i E[X_i]E\left[\frac{W_i}{S_W}\right] = \mu\sum_i E\left[\frac{W_i}{S_W}\right] = \mu E\left[\frac{\sum_i W_i}{S_W}\right] = \mu E[1] = \mu.$$
You could try a similar approach with the variance, which requires computing the expectation of the square of the original fraction. Writing
$$\omega_i = \frac{W_i}{\left(\sum_j W_j\right)^2},$$
you will find (upon expanding the square of the sum into a double sum of products) that
$$E\left[\left(\frac{\sum_i X_i W_i}{\sum_j W_j} \right)^2\right] = \sum_{i,j} E[X_iX_j]\, E[\omega_i\omega_j].$$
This is a weighted sum of the expectations $E[X_iX_j]$ that appear in computing the variance of $X_1+X_2+\cdots+X_n.$ However, no simplification is generally possible unless somehow the weights $E[\omega_i\omega_j]$ simplify, such as all being equal (which happens when the weights are iid -- and this time we need them to be uncorrelated). You have seen enough of the relevant algebra here to be able to carry it out yourself in such special cases.
We're ready for a counterexample. The smallest possible one will involve four independent variables $X_1,X_2,W_1,W_2;$ the $X_i$ should not have the same means; and (for similar reasons) the $W_i$ should not have the same means.
Consider, then, binary variables with equal probabilities of each value. Let the possible values of $X_1$ be $\{0,1\},$ of $X_2$ be $\{0,2\},$ of $W_1$ be $\{1-\alpha,\alpha\},$ and of $W_2$ be $\{1-\beta,\beta\}$ for $0\lt \alpha,\beta\le 1/2.$ To make the $W_i$ as different as possible, let's select two extreme values; say, $\alpha\approx 0$ and $\beta = 1/2.$
The calculation is straightforward. The intuitive formula in the question, $E[Z] \overset{?}{=} \frac{\sum_i E[X_i] E[W_i]}{\sum_i E[W_i]},$ gives $3/4,$ but in fact $E[Z]\approx 5/6 \ne 3/4.$ Here is R
code to carry it out.
a <- 1e-15
b <- 1/2
X <- expand.grid(X1=c(0,1), X2=c(0,2), W1=c(1-a,a), W2=c(1-b,b))
X$Z = with(X, (X1 * W1 + X2 * W2) / (W1 + W2))
E.z <- with(X, mean(Z))
F.z <- with(X, (mean(X1) * mean(W1) + mean(X2) * mean(W2)) / (mean(W1) + mean(W2)))
(c(Expectation = E.z, `Formula?` = F.z))
Its output is
Expectation Formula?
0.8333333 0.7500000