While developing a model (a Poisson regression, but this is not the topic of this post), I stumbled upon a physically implausible relationship between some variables.
I have ground temperature data for a European country. Nothing exotic:
I have also collected the Moon brightness (APmag
) and Sun-Earth-Moon angle (SOT.angle
) data from NASA. These follow an obvious pattern and are closely, but not exactly linearly related:
When I run a linear regression on these data, I find no relationship between the temperature and the brightness, angle, or both ($p > 0.8$, $R^2 \approx 0$). Again, no surprise here. However, if I take the interaction into account I suddenly obtain highly "significant" relationship ($p < 10^{-11}$, $R^2 \approx 0.14$):
Call:
lm(formula = TG ~ SOT.angle * APmag, data = hd2018)
Residuals:
Min 1Q Median 3Q Max
-15.3948 -5.5808 0.5258 5.8828 16.9561
Coefficients:
Estimate Std. Error t value Pr(>|t|)
(Intercept) 72.54770 8.73268 8.308 2.04e-15 ***
SOT.angle 2.46045 0.31466 7.819 6.00e-14 ***
APmag 15.72812 2.11922 7.422 8.50e-13 ***
SOT.angle:APmag 0.13507 0.01722 7.846 5.01e-14 ***
---
Signif. codes: 0 ‘***’ 0.001 ‘**’ 0.01 ‘*’ 0.05 ‘.’ 0.1 ‘ ’ 1
Residual standard error: 7.47 on 358 degrees of freedom
Multiple R-squared: 0.1468, Adjusted R-squared: 0.1396
F-statistic: 20.53 on 3 and 358 DF, p-value: 2.692e-12
And that was just with the data for one year. If I take 20 years, I get p-values in the range $10^{-100}$.
In medicine, where I do my research, this would be considered proof beyond any doubt, but physically, it is obvious that the Moon cannot influence ground temperature on Earth*. My guess is it has to do something with the near-linear relationship between the brightness and the angle, but I can't say I really understand the mechanism.
In this case, I was lucky that my domain knowledge sufficed to identify this as a false relationship, but I fear there might be other false relationships for which we lack such domain knowledge.
Is there a statistical approach to avoid falling in such traps? I'd appreciate any clarification: mathematical, graphical, intuitive...
* Well, yes, maybe in the range $\ll 10^{-6} K$, which is far below the measurement precision and the noise level. I'm pretty sure the above analysis didn't discover that effect.
Update:
The actual temperature has nothing to do with the relationship. I get "significant" results ($p$ ranging from $10^{-3}$ to $10^{-13}$) for all of the following artificial "temperature" curves: